Answer / kondala rao

Reconciliation is nothing but a link between gl acccounts and sub ledger.with out this link we can't post directly in sub ledgers. it will not update our gl accounts.

open item management is used to clear the outstandings. in this method we can clear full payment, partial payment, or residual payment.

Answer / meeravali

Reconciliation account help to assign GL and Subledger when we post in sub ledger it will effect in ledger, the open item management nothing but outstanding it will be clear with another transaction in further

Answer / gilledisuresh

reconcilation account is northing but integration b/n
subledger and general ledger account

I have created GL master without selection open item management and i have posted business transactions to that GL. Now client wants to change that GL to open item management. is it possible...how?

1 Answers  

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How do you generate reports in treasury? What format are they generated in?

0 Answers   IBM, SAP Labs,

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What is difference between TAXJIN & TAXINN?

1 Answers  

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I would like to know the questions asked in client round and project manager round? please suggest the questions generally asked

1 Answers   Accenture,

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what's new in ECC6 in sap fi/co?

9 Answers   HCL,

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Instead of using GR/IR clearing account why cant we use provision for sundry creditors, if yes then why SAP using GR/IR Clearing Account

4 Answers   Accenture,

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Hai... friends i dont know this is right or wrong but depends on my position ask this question. any one know the SAP FICO genuine back door job in software. iam married but some reason can i take divorce so iam very disturbed. so in this position i will not able to concentrate and not able to face interview. so iam asking backdoor but i have strong knowledge on subject. pls help me. my qualification M.Com ( 2009 ). contact my mail id : phani01011983@gmail.com. cont me as early as possible. thank you.

0 Answers  

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HELLO, I have a doubt in FI Asset Accounting. On 01.04.2010 I capitalized the asset (Furniture & Fixture) and purchase on 01.04.2010  (Document date & Posting Date) worth Rs.10000/-  (ASSET Acquisition Value) , I charged depreciation 10% up to 6 months with WDV method. After 6 month the value of asset is Rs.9500/-. Now I want to sell the asset of Rs.9000. When I done the same instead of showing the loss on sale of asset of Rs.500/-, its showing Rs. 1000/- on loss on sell of asset. WHY SO…… PLEASE SUGGEST I AM CONFUSED, IS THERE SOMETHING MISSING IN CLIEN 800? OR IT MY MISTAKE IN G/L ASSIGNING IN T.CODE: AO90

0 Answers   JK Technosoft,

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what is the work of OKB9 and why we need okb9 setting? Plz, give in detials.

2 Answers  

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Explain the Dunning Procedure & it's T.Code

4 Answers   Wipro,

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what is the document split and what its important?

3 Answers   L&T,

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no range we are using internaly or externally in g/l?

2 Answers   BirlaSoft, IBM,

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