Technical Interview Questions – Exchange 2003 1. Tell me a bit about the capabilities of Exchange Server. 2. What are the different Exchange 2003 versions? 3. What's the main differences between Exchange 5.5 and Exchange 2000/2003? 4. What are the major network infrastructure for installing Exchange 2003? 5. What is the latest Exchange 2003 Service Pack? Name a few changes in functionality in that SP. 6. What are the disk considerations when installing Exchange (RAID types, locations and so on). 7. You got a new HP DL380 (2U) server, dual Xeon, 4GB of RAM, 7 SAS disks, 64-bit. What do you do next to install Exchange 2003? (you have AD in place) 8. Why not install Exchange on the same machine as a DC? 9. Are there any other installation considerations? 10. How would you prepare the AD Schema in advance before installing Exchange? 11. What type or permissions do you need in order to install the first Exchange server in a forest? In a domain? 12. How would you verify that the schema was in fact updated? 13. What type of memory optimization changes could you do for Exchange 2003? 14. How would you check your Exchange configuration settings to see if they're right? 15. What are the Exchange management tools? How and where can you install them? 16. What types of permissions are configurable for Exchange? 17. How can you grant access for an administrator to access all mailboxes on a specific server? 18. What is the Send As permission? 19. What other management tools are used to manage and control Exchange 2003? Name the tools you'd use. 20. What are Exchange Recipient types? Name 5. 21. You created a mailbox for a user, yet the mailbox does not appear in ESM. Why? 22. You wanted to change mailbox access permissions for a mailbox, yet you see the SELF permission alone on the permissions list. Why? 23. What are Query Based Distribution groups? 24. What type of groups would you use when configuring distribution groups in a multiple domain forest? 25. Name a few configuration options for Exchange recipients. 26. What's the difference between Exchange 2003 Std. and Ent. editions when related to storage options and size? 27. Name a few configuration options related to mailbox stores. 28. What are System Public Folders? Where would you find them? 29. How would you plan and configure Public Folder redundancy? 30. How can you immediately stop PF replication? 31. How can you prevent PF referral across slow WAN links? 32. What types of PF management tools might you use? 33. What are the differences between administrative permissions and client permissions in PF? 34. How can you configure PF replication from the command prompt in Exchange 2003? 35. What are the message hygiene options you can use natively in Exchange 2003? 36. What are the configuration options in IMF? 37. What are virtual servers? When would you use more than one? 38. Name some of the SMTP Virtual Server configuration options. 39. What is a Mail Relay? Name a few known mail relay software or hardware options. 40. What is a Smart Host? Where would you configure it? 41. What are Routing Groups? When would you use them? 42. What are the types of Connectors you can use in Exchange? 43. What is the cost option in Exchange connectors? 44. What is the Link State Table? How would you view it? 45. How would you configure mail transfer security between 2 routing groups? 46. What is the Routing Group Master? Who holds that role? 47. Explain the configuration steps required to allow Exchange 2003 to send and receive email from the Internet (consider a one-site multiple server scenario). 48. What is DS2MB? 49. What is Forms Based Authentication? 50. How would you configure OWA's settings on an Exchange server? 51. What is DSACCESS? 52. What are Recipient Policies? 53. How would you work with multiple recipient policies? 54. What is the "issue" with trying to remove email addresses added by recipient policies? How would you fix that? 55. What is the RUS? 56. When would you need to manually create additional RUS? 57. What are Address Lists? 58. How would you modify the filter properties of one of the default address lists? 59. How can you create multiple GALs and allow the users to only see the one related to them? 60. What is a Front End server? In what scenarios would you use one? 61. What type of authentication is used on the front end servers? 62. When would you use NLB? 63. How would you achieve incoming mail redundancy? 64. What are the 4 types of Exchange backups? 65. What is the Dial-Tone server scenario? 66. When would you use offline backup? 67. How do you re-install Exchange on a server that has crashed but with AD intact? 68. What is the dumpster? 69. What are the e00xxxxx.log files? 70. What is the e00.chk file? 71. What is circular logging? When would you use it? 72. What's the difference between online and offline defrag? 73. How would you know if it is time to perform an offline defrag of your Exchange stores? 74. How would you plan for, and perform the offline defrag? 75. What is the eseutil command? 76. What is the isinteg command? 77. How would you monitor Exchange's services and performance? Name 2 or 3 options. 78. Name all the client connection options in Exchange 2003. 79. What is Direct Push? What are the requirements to run it? 80. How would you remote wipe a PPC? 81. What are the issues with connecting Outlook from a remote computer to your mailbox? 82. How would you solve those issues? Name 2 or 3 methods 83. What is RPC over HTTP? What are the requirements to run it? 84. What is Cached Mode in OL2003/2007? 85. What are the benefits and "issues" when using cached mode? How would you tackle those issues? 86. What is S/MIME? What are the usage scenarios for S/MIME? 87. What are the IPSec usage scenarios for Exchange 2003? 88. How do you enable SSL on OWA? 89. What are the considerations for obtaining a digital certificate for SSL on Exchange? 90. Name a few 3rd-party CAs. 91. What do you need to consider when using a client-type AV software on an Exchange server? 92. What are the different clustering options in Exchange 2003? Which one would you choose and why.

3 Answers   AB Inc, Convergys, Good Luck, HP, IBM, Microsoft,

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In HSE safety system, why the combination of H,S&E letters? and what is relationship?

2 Answers  

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What are the major network infrastructures for installing Exchange 2003?

0 Answers   Wipro,

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Question 1 A low-level format received by a floppy disk does what? a. Adds a root directory b. Includes a FAT (File Allocation Table) c. Stores 720K d. Creates a structure of sectors, tracks, & cluster. Question 2 A user is complaining of problems. You find that upon startup, the IBM machine give two beeps alerting you to a POST error. Error code 301 shows. What is wrong with this machine? a. There is a monitor error. b. There is a keyboard error. c. This is not a POST error. Two beeps indicates a motherboard error. d. There is a serial card error. Question 3 What is this an example of? A. A 30-pin SIMM B. A 72-pin SIMM C. A 168-pin DIMM D. C-RIMM Question 4 Bridges are capable of which? a. Expanding the length of a network segment. b. Acting as a firewall. c. Segmenting networks. d. Communication of computers on a LAN. Question 5 Which is true of a female DB 15-pin video port? a. It has 2 rows of 5 pinholes. b. It has 3 rows of 5 pinholes. c. It has one row of 8 pinholes and one row of 7 pinholes d. It has one row of 6 pinholes and one row of 9 pinholes Question 6 You have just installed two hard drives into the same machine. One is set up as the slave and both are on the same IDE channel. You notice that the drive's LED light is constantly lit on the slave drive. What do you need to do to fix this? a. Troubleshoot the slave drive by reconfiguring the slave to be the master, removing the original master drive, then rebooting. b. Disable the secondary controller in the BIOS. c. Manually enter the drive settings on the BIOS. d. Install more memory. Question 7 SVGA and Ultra VGA are two distinct video standards. True or False? a. True. b. False. Question 8 SVGA is represented by all of the following resolutions except: a. 1600 x 1200 b. 800 x 600 c. 640 x 480 d. 1280 x 1024 Question 9 Which is true of an Active Matrix LCD? a. The LCD is divided into two halves. b. The LCD is divided into two halves. c. Each pixel is constantly refreshed. d. The pixels are fixed. e. It uses more electricity. f. None of the above. Question 10 What are the correct stages and order of the EP laser printing process? a. Cleaning, Writing, Conditioning, Developing, Fusing, Transferring, and End of Cycle b. Cleaning, Conditioning, Writing, Developing, Transferring, Fusing, & End of Cycle c. Erasing, Writing, Heating, Developing, Fusing, Transferring, & End of Cycle d. Conditioning, Erasing, Writing, Developing, Fusing, Transferring, & End of Cycle Question 11 Choose the correct associations (pick 2). a. 802.4 – Internetworking b. 802.6 - Metropolitan area network c. 802.9 - Integrated voice and data networks d. 802. 11 - Token ring LAN Question 12 What is the function of a Layer 2 switch ? a. forwards data based on logical addressing b. duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port c. learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address d. determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address. Question 13 An administrator would like to connect ten workstations on a 192.168.0.0/24 network. The device selected by the administrator must allow connectivity between hosts without sharing bandwidth. Which device would be appropriate? a. Hub b. Router c. Switch d. Repeater Question 14 Which devices are primarily used to extend cable segments within a collision domain by regenerating the data signals? (Choose two.) a. switch b. repeater c. router d. bridge e. hub Question 15 Which networking devices use the MAC address to make forwarding decisions? (Choose two.) a. NIC b. bridge c. hub d. switch e. repeater Software : 1. Briefly describe the data type conversion feature of Oracle SQL and PL/SQL. 2. What is INDEX? Describe its benefits. 3. Write down the name of five most popular RDBMS. 4. What is UML? Write some Diagram name. 5. What is HTML and XML? 6. What is CSS and AJAX and their benefits? 7. What is software quality assurance? 8. Describe components of a typical test plan? 9. What is the difference between QC and QA? 10. What is Verification and Validation? 11. What diff b/w black box and white box testing? 12. What is the difference between System Testing, Integration Testing & System Integration Testing? ATI Limited Question Paper Duration Time : 1 Hour and 30 Minutes Question 1 A low-level format received by a floppy disk does what? a. Adds a root directory b. Includes a FAT (File Allocation Table) c. Stores 720K d. Creates a structure of sectors, tracks, & cluster. Question 2 A user is complaining of problems. You find that upon startup, the IBM machine give two beeps alerting you to a POST error. Error code 301 shows. What is wrong with this machine? a. There is a monitor error. b. There is a keyboard error. c. This is not a POST error. Two beeps indicates a motherboard error. d. There is a serial card error. Question 3 What is this an example of? A. A 30-pin SIMM B. A 72-pin SIMM C. A 168-pin DIMM D. C-RIMM Question 4 Bridges are capable of which? a. Expanding the length of a network segment. b. Acting as a firewall. c. Segmenting networks. d. Communication of computers on a LAN. Question 5 Which is true of a female DB 15-pin video port? a. It has 2 rows of 5 pinholes. b. It has 3 rows of 5 pinholes. c. It has one row of 8 pinholes and one row of 7 pinholes d. It has one row of 6 pinholes and one row of 9 pinholes Question 6 You have just installed two hard drives into the same machine. One is set up as the slave and both are on the same IDE channel. You notice that the drive's LED light is constantly lit on the slave drive. What do you need to do to fix this? a. Troubleshoot the slave drive by reconfiguring the slave to be the master, removing the original master drive, then rebooting. b. Disable the secondary controller in the BIOS. c. Manually enter the drive settings on the BIOS. d. Install more memory. Question 7 SVGA and Ultra VGA are two distinct video standards. True or False? a. True. b. False. Question 8 SVGA is represented by all of the following resolutions except: a. 1600 x 1200 b. 800 x 600 c. 640 x 480 d. 1280 x 1024 Question 9 Which is true of an Active Matrix LCD? a. The LCD is divided into two halves. b. The LCD is divided into two halves. c. Each pixel is constantly refreshed. d. The pixels are fixed. e. It uses more electricity. f. None of the above. Question 10 What are the correct stages and order of the EP laser printing process? a. Cleaning, Writing, Conditioning, Developing, Fusing, Transferring, and End of Cycle b. Cleaning, Conditioning, Writing, Developing, Transferring, Fusing, & End of Cycle c. Erasing, Writing, Heating, Developing, Fusing, Transferring, & End of Cycle d. Conditioning, Erasing, Writing, Developing, Fusing, Transferring, & End of Cycle Question 11 Choose the correct associations (pick 2). a. 802.4 – Internetworking b. 802.6 - Metropolitan area network c. 802.9 - Integrated voice and data networks d. 802. 11 - Token ring LAN Question 12 What is the function of a Layer 2 switch ? a. forwards data based on logical addressing b. duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port c. learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address d. determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address. Question 13 An administrator would like to connect ten workstations on a 192.168.0.0/24 network. The device selected by the administrator must allow connectivity between hosts without sharing bandwidth. Which device would be appropriate? a. Hub b. Router c. Switch d. Repeater Question 14 Which devices are primarily used to extend cable segments within a collision domain by regenerating the data signals? (Choose two.) a. switch b. repeater c. router d. bridge e. hub Question 15 Which networking devices use the MAC address to make forwarding decisions? (Choose two.) a. NIC b. bridge c. hub d. switch e. repeater Software : 1. Briefly describe the data type conversion feature of Oracle SQL and PL/SQL. 2. What is INDEX? Describe its benefits. 3. Write down the name of five most popular RDBMS. 4. What is UML? Write some Diagram name. 5. What is HTML and XML? 6. What is CSS and AJAX and their benefits? 7. What is software quality assurance? 8. Describe components of a typical test plan? 9. What is the difference between QC and QA? 10. What is Verification and Validation? 11. What diff b/w black box and white box testing? 12. What is the difference between System Testing, Integration Testing & System Integration Testing?

1 Answers   Aptech, ATI, FH,

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how the class is instance of object?

0 Answers  

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out of fgets() and gets()which function is safe to use and why in c language?

1 Answers  

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c# code, vb.net code language parity refers to what?

0 Answers  

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I found that there is no display on monitor even after the cpu have done its booting succesfuly....VGA port is normal and RAM was also been checked. What may the problem...please guide..thanks.

1 Answers  

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sir i have 4 year gap in engineering. i would complete my degree b.tech it in 2014. it will be may be in 2nd class.my hsc is also with 2nd class. i am week in programming. Then if i want highest package upto 5-6 lacs then what should i prepare myself as a good engineer to get this package???

0 Answers  

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what is the class of generator A b & c

0 Answers   Ispat,

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PAPER 1--GENERAL APTITUDE Directions:Each question given below consists of a word, followed by four words or phrases. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in the question. ANTONYMS 1. Disregarded (a) heed (b) hopeful (c) evade (d) dense Ans. (a) 2. Obviate (a) becloud (b) necessitate (c) rationalize (d) execute Ans. (b) 3. Superficial (a) profound (b) exaggerated (c) subjective (d) spirited Ans. (a) 4. Abide (a) retract an offer (b) refuse to endure (c) shield from harm (d) exonerate Ans. (b) 5. Acerbity (a) noteworthiness (b) hypocrisy (c) mildness of temperament (d) lack of anxiety Ans. (c) Directions: Each question or group of questions is based on a passage or set of conditions. For each question, select the best answer choice given. Quesitions 6-9 In a certain society, there are two marriage groups, Red and Brown. No marriage is permitted within a group. On marriage, males become part of their wife's group: women remain in their own group. Children belong to the same group as their parents. Widowers and divorced males revert to the group of their birth. Marriage to more than one person at the same time and marriage to a direct descendant are forbidden. 6. A Brown female could have had I. a grandfather born Red II. a grandmother born Red III. two grandfathers born Brown (a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II only (d) II and III only (e) I,II and III Ans. (c) 7. A male born into the Brown group may have (a) an uncle in either group (b) a Brown daughter (c) a Brown son (d) a son-in-law born into the Red group (e) a daughter-in-law in the Red group Ans. (a) 8. Which of the following is not permitted under the rules stated? (a) A Brown male marrying his father's sister (b) A Red female marrying her mother's brother (c) A man born Red, who is now a widower, marrying his brother's widow (d) A widower marrying his wife's sister (e) A widow marrying her divorced daughter's ex-husband Ans. (b) 9. If widowers and divorced males retained the group they had upon marrying, which of the following would have been permissible?(Assume no previous marriages occurred) (a) A woman marrying her dead sister's husband (b) A woman marrying her divorced daughter's ex-husband. (c) A widower marrying his brother's daughter (d) A woman marrying her mother's brother, who is a widower (e) A divorced male marrying his ex-wife's divorced sister Ans. (d) Questions 10-13 Tom wishes to enroll in Latin AA, Sanskrit A, Armenian Literature 221, and Celtic Literature 701. Latin AA meets five days a week, either from 9 to 11 A.M or from 2 to 4 P.M. Sanskrit A meets either Tuesday and Thursday from 12 noon to 3 P.M., or Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 10 A.M to 12 noon. Armenian Literature 221 meets either Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 12:30 to 2 P.M., or Tuesday and Thursday from 10:30 A.M to 12:30 P.M Celtic Literature 701 meets by arrangement with the instructor, the only requirement being that it meet for one four-hour session or two two-hour sessions per week, between 9A.M and 4 P.M from Monday to Friday, beginning on the hour. 10. Which combination is impossible for Tom? (a) Latin in the morning, Sanskrit on Tuesday and Thursday, and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, Friday (b) Latin in the afternoon and Sanskrit and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. (c) Latin in the afternoon, Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday,and Armenian Literature on Tuesday and Thursday (d) Latin in the morning and Sanskrit and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday (e) Latin in the afternoon, Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesda and Friday, and Celtic Literature on Tuesday Ans. (d) 11. Which of the following gives the greatest number of alternatives for scheduling Celtic Literature, assuming that all other courses (a) Latin in the afternoon and Armenian Literature Monday, Wednesday and Friday (b) Sanskrit on Tuesday and Thursday and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday and Friday (c) Latin in the afternoon and Armenian Literature Tuesday and Thursday (d) Latin in the morning and Sanskrit on Tuesday and Thursday (e) Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. and Armenian Literature on Tuesday and Thursday Ans. (a) 12. If the Celtic instructor insists on holding at least one session on Friday, in which of the following can Tom enroll? (I) Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday (II) Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday (a) I only (b) II only (c) both I and II (d) I or II but not both (e) neither I nor II Ans. (d) 13. Which of the following additional courses, meeting as indicated, can Tom take? (a) Maths--Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 10A.M to 12 noon (b) French--Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 11A.M to 12:30 P.M (c) English--Tuesday and Thursday from 2 to 4 P.M (d) Japenese--Tuesday and Thursday from 1 to 3 P.M (e) Old Norse-Icelandic--Monday only from 12 to 3 P.M Ans. (b) Questions 14-18 (1) Ashland is north of East Liverpool and west of Coshocton (2) Bowling Green is north of Ashland and west of Fredericktown (3) Dover is south and east of Ashland (4) East Liverpool is north of Fredricktown and east of Dover (5) Fredricktown is north of Dover and west of Ashland (6) Coshocton is south of Fredricktown and west of Dover 14. Which of the towns mentioned is furthest to the northwest ? (a) Ashland (b) Bowling Green (c) Coshocton (d) East Liverpool (e) Fredericktown Ans. (b) 15. Which of the following must be both north and east of Fredricktown? (I) Ashland (II) Coshocton (III) East Liverpool (a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I and II (e) I and III Ans. (e) 16. Which of the following towns must be situated both south and west of at least one other town? (a) Ashland only (b) Ashland and Fredricktown (c) Dover and Fredricktown (d) Dover,Coshocton and Fredricktown (e) Dover,Coshocton and East Liverpool Ans. (d) 17. Which of the following statements, if true, would make the information in the numbered statements more specific? (a) Coshocton is north of Dover (b) East Liverpool is north of Dover (c) Ashland is east of Bowling Green (d) Coshocton is east of Fredericktown (e) Bowling Green is north of Fredericktown Ans. (a) 18. Which of the numbered statements gives information that can be deduced from one or more of the other statement? (a) (1) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (4) (e) (6) Ans. (c) Questions 19-22 Spelunkers International offers exploring tours in eight caves: Abbott, Benny, Caeser, Dangerfield, Ewell, Fields, Guinness, and Hope (1) Class 1 spelunkers may not attempt cave Ewell, Fields or Hope (2) Class 2 spelunkers may not attempt Hope (3) Class 3 spelunkers may attempt any cave (4) Cave Caesar may be attempted only by spelunkers who have previously explored cave Benny (5) Cave Fields may be attempted only by spelunkers who have previously explored cave Ewell (6) Only two of caves Benny, Caeser, Ewell, Fields, and Hope may be attempted by any explorer in a single tour 19. A class 2 spelunker who has previously explored cave Ewell may be restricted in choosing a tour by which rule(s)? (I) Rule(4) (II) Rule(5) (III) Rule(6) (a) I only (b) II only (c) I and III only (d) II and III only (e) I, II and III Ans. (c) 20. In how many different ways may a class 1 spelunker who has never explored any of the eightcaves before set up a tour of three caves, if she wishes to explore caves Abbott and Caesar? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6 Ans. (b) 21. What is the maximum number of caves that a class 3 spelunker who has previously explored only cave Benny may include in a single tour? (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (e) 8 Ans. (b) 22. If x + y = 3 and y/x= 2 then y = ? (a) 0 (b) 1/2 (c) 1 (d) 3/2 (e) 2 Ans. (e) 23. How many squares with sides 1/2 inch long are needed to cover a rectangle that is 4 ft long and 6 ft wide (a) 24 (b) 96 (c) 3456 (d) 13824 (e) 14266 24. If a=2/3b , b=2/3c, and c=2/3d what part of d is b/ (a) 8/27 (b) 4/9 (c) 2/3 (d) 75% (e) 4/3 Ans. (b) 25. Successive discounts of 20% and 15% are equal to a single discount of (a) 30% (b) 32% (c) 34% (d) 35% (e) 36 Ans. (b) 26. The petrol tank of an automobile can hold g liters.If a liters was removed when the tank was full, what part of the full tank was removed? (a)g-a (b)g/a (c) a/g (d) (g-a)/a (e) (g-a)/g Ans. (c) 27.If x/y=4 and y is not '0' what % of x is 2x-y (a)150% (b)175% (c)200% (d)250% Ans. (b) 28.If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=? (a)15 (b)12 (c)18 (d)10 Ans. (b) 29.If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x? (a)12 (b)8 (c)16 (d)6 Ans. (b) 30. (1/10)18 - (1/10)20 = ? (a) 99/1020 (b) 99/10 (c) 0.9 (d) none of these Ans. (a) 31. Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank (a) 17 1/7 mins (b) 20 mins (c) 8 mins (d) none of these Ans. (a) 32. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day.How many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the job? (a) 8 hrs (b) 7 1/2 hrs (c) 7 hrs (d) 9 hrs Ans. (b) 33. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38 and product 1728 (a) 12 (b) 20 (c) 8 (d) none of these Ans. (c) 34. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current? (a) 1/2 kmph (b) 7/12 kmph (c) 5 kmph (d) none of these Ans. (b) 35. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long.Find the area it can graze? (a) 38.5 sq.m (b) 155 sq.m (c) 144 sq.m (d) 19.25 sq.m Ans. (a)

0 Answers  

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What is the difference between tcp/ip protocol and IP protocol?

0 Answers   Microsoft,

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