Answer / pramod gavali

if Debtors payment is 60 days (Current Assets)

Standard ratio is (C.A.) 2 : 1 (C.L.)

then Debtors = 2 ( 60 days)

working capital = C. A. - C.L.

so, 2-1 = 1

: 60 days - 30 days = 30 days payment

so working capital = 30 days payment

Answer / vasu borada

yes i agree with the both but we cant assume being software
company nil suppliers and liabilities because they need
suppliers in other aspects. but as per accounting standard
we need to accept current ratio 2:1, because here working
capital is combination of C.A& C.L so i this question keep
remember every company require working capital so my answer
it depends because we are using the information which is
given in question so both will suppose say like this.

Answer / bloody idiot

Working Capital is nothing but Current Asset Less Current
Liabilities, it is represented by Current Ratio.

The reason behind calculating Working Capital is to assess
how much is the Debt Collection period vis a vis its
disbursement to creditors at large.

Behind this concept lies a logic that, if a firm is
producing and selling a product, it is investing some money
into its Manufacture, if the firm is able to recover those
Funds from Customer within time, it need not use outside
(Borrowed Funds / Owner's equity) into running daily
operations of the Business. So the less the Working Capital
the better for the firm since it's outside requirements of
funds and also Cost of such Funds (Interest) comes down.
The Creditors ( As Current Liabilities) are deducted since
it represnts firm's efficiency in delaying payments to its
suppliers, which denotes that firm is able to manage
(Current requirement of Working capital - financed from
outside funds) its borrowed WC Funds more efficiently.

Current ratio as a standard of 2 : 1 need not be always
correct, suppose if a firm is able to recover its'
outstandings from debtors at efficient speed and delays
payments to Suppliers, it will always have a below standard
Ratio. And this ratio will not necessary mean that Co. is
unable to generate any sales(It is just able to reover it's
Sales/invested funds at greater speeds than payment
outflow.So it depends on circumstances, all i want to say
is that achiving 2:1 ratio alone does not mean a co. has
solved all its problems,this ratio can be achieved by high
amount of Unrealisable Debtors also (Debtor's Analysis is
very important)

In the question asked, only Debtors payment is given, I
will give answer like this
" I assume that Suppliers is Nil (this being a Software
Company) So Creditors represented by Current Liabilities is
Nil. Hence Working Capital Requirement or Gross W.C. = Net
W.C. = Current Assets less Current Liabilities = 60 Days(2
months).

This means A Company must use borrowed/outside funds to
work around its routine operastions for 2 months, until and
unless it recovers the funds from Debtors.

Answer / sahil

Only working capital is asked that means gross working capital or current assets.So if the question is complete answer will be 60 days.

Answer / pramod gavali

I thinks this question is wrong and or information is
incomplete. Do you think so ..???

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Introduction Mangalore Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited (MRPL) and Reliance Petroleum Limited (RPL) Table 1 : MRPL’s Income Statement and Balance Sheet (Rs. in mn) Particulars April 1999 – March 2000 April 2000 – March 2001 April 2001 – march 2002 Net Sales 30212.04 28891.50 53714.40 Other Income 701.37 524.50 439.90 Total Income 30913.41 29415.70 54154.30 Expenditure (30112.79) (27917.50) (51587.00) Interest (2369.59) (2378.30) (6722.90) Depreciation (1427.63) (1728.60) (3633.50) Tax (0.24) (0.30) 2864.30 Total Expenditure (33910.25) (32024.70) (61943.40) Profit after Tax (2996.84) (2609.00) (4924.80) Equity 7921.00 7921.00 7921.00 Reserves 1714.50 (1506.96) (4489.56) Debt 54082.97 50516.52 55356.94 . Table II : RPL’s Income statement and Balance Sheet Particulars April 2001 – March 2002 April 2000 – March 2001 Net Sales 331170.00 309630.00 Other Income 3550.00 2200.00 Total Income 334720.00 311830.00 Expenditure (299430.00) (279090.00) Interest (9550.00) (10320.00) Depreciation (8020.00) (6610.00) Tax (980.00) (1170.00) Total Expenditure (317980.00) (297190.30) Profit after Tax 16740.00 14640.00 Equity 52020.00 47488.10 Reserves - 34974.20 Debt - 74921.30 Table III : Quarterly Closing Prices (04/30/1996 to 09/30/2002) Date BSE-30 RPL MRPL 04/30/96 3376.64 14.75 32.50 06/28/96 3731.96 12.90 28.25 09/30/96 3519.42 10.25 19.35 12/24/96 2883.88 10.40 20.60 03/31/96 3360.89 12.70 17.65 06/30/97 4256.09 17.40 18.10 09/30/97 3902.03 19.00 21.60 12/31/97 3658.98 23.55 19.85 03/31/98 3892.75 20.50 19.25 06/30/98 3250.69 20.00 16.15 09/30/98 2812.49 17.60 13.90 12/31/98 3055.41 18.80 12.90 03/31/98 3739.96 18.70 10.30 06/30/99 4140.73 27.05 19.00 09/30/99 4764.92 46.90 21.00 12/30/99 5005.82 65.70 16.70 03/31/00 5001.28 60.04 12.35 06/30/00 4748.77 53.95 9.90 09/29/00 4090.38 56.75 8.80 12/29/00 3972.12 56.60 8.80 03/30/01 3604.39 48.55 7.70 06/29/01 3456.78 47.00 6.85 09/28/01 2811.66 29.75 6.30 12/31/01 3263.33 29.30 6.80 03/28/02 3469.35 25.85 6.80 06/28/02 3244.70 24.05 10.00 09/30/02 2930.51 23.10 7.65 Questions 1. Calculate the average return and risk on shares of RPL and MRPL during the period 1996-2002. divide the total risk on each of the stocks between systematic and unsystematic components. Calculate each of the components as a percentage of the total risk.

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