if f(x)=1/x then f(f(f(x))) equals
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Answer / Rupesh Kumar
Using the given function, we find that f(x) = 1 / x. Applying this function twice gives f(f(x)) = 1 / (1/x) = x. Applying it a third time gives f(f(f(x))) = 1 / x = f(x). So, f(f(f(x))) equals f(x).n
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