My name is deepshikha .if any one have quentiles apptitude question paper please mail me on diffmail172@gmail.com.

2304

A sum 's' is divided into 4 parts. Second person gets Rs 10 more than first.3rd person is Rs 10 more than second, 4th is 10 more than 3rd. How much amount do 1st person get?

4

A mother is 30 years older than her daughter however she will be only thrice as old as the daughter after 5 years. What is mother’s present age ?

5

if the sum of five consecutive nos. 35? how many prime numbers are there :

2

There are 5 red shoes, 4 green shoes. If one draw randomly a shoe what is the probability of getting red shoe

5

there are 27 coins in which one is heavier than rest(all equal weight). how many measurements are needed to isolate that odd one.

6

During a given week an author spends 1/4 of his time preparing first drafts, 3/8 of his time editing the drafts and the rest of the time in preparing final drafts. If he works 48 hours during the week, how many hours did he spend in preparing final drafts?

5

6) A store owner decided to raise the price of a particular item by exactly 10%. Of the following which is NOT the new price? a) $1.10 b) $8.80 c) $11.00 d) $57.30 e) $78.10 7) The price of a candy bar is $1.00. The price of a ten pack of the same candy bar is $7.40. The ten pack of candy bars is what percentage cheaper then purchasing ten candy bars individually? a) 18% b) 26% c) 32% d) 48% e) The prices are same 11) In 1991, was the number of people in City A three times greater then the number of people in City B? 1) In 1991, there were approximately 1.1 million more people in City A than in City B. 2) In 1991, the 300,000 Catholics in City A made up 20% of its population, and the 141,000 Buddhists in City B made up 30% of its population. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 13) If the ticket sales s for a company increases 25% from standard sales to 60 tickets sold, then 60 - s =: a) 7 b) 12 c) 18 d) 30 e) 48 14) All of the tickets for 2 music concerts, X and Y, were either purchased or given away, and the ratio of X tickets to Y was 2 to 1. Of the total number of X tickets and Y tickets, what percentage was purchased? 1) The total number of X tickets and Y tickets, is 240. 2) Of the X tickets, exactly 60% were purchased, and of the Y tickets, exactly 80% were purchased. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 15) If a and b are positive integers, is a + 4b odd? 1) b is even. 2) a is odd. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 16) If q is a multiple of prime numbers, is q a multiple of r? 1) r < 4. 2) q = 18. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 17) How many integers between 100 and 150, inclusive, cannot be evenly divided by 3 nor 5? a) 35 b) 27 c) 25 d) 26 e) 28 18) Susan wants to put up fencing around three sides of her rectangular yard and leave a side of 20 feet unfenced. If the yard has an area of 680 square feet, how many feet of fencing does she need? a) 38 b) 44 c) 72 d) 88 e) 97 19) Which of the following equations has a root in common with x2 - 6x + 5 = 0? a) x2 + 1 = 0 b) x2 - x - 2 = 0 c) 2x2 - 2 = 0 d) x2 - 2x - 3 = 0 e) x2 - 10x - 5 = 0 20) A computer store regularly sells all stock at a discount of 20 percent to 40 percent. If an additional 25 percent were deducted from the discount price during a special sale, what would be the lowest possible price of a part costing $16 before any discount? a) $6.80 b) $7.20 c) $9.60 d) $11.30 e) $14.80 21) If "basis points" are defined so that 1 percent is equal to 100 basis points, then 75.5 percent is how many basis points greater than 65.5 percent? a) .01 b) .10 c) 10 d) 100 e) 1000 22) If x + 8y = 20 and x = -3y, then y = a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 e) 8 23) If 2x + y = 10 and x = 3, what is x – y a) -3 b) -1 c) 0 d) 1 e) 3 24) If a triangle has a base B and the altitude of the triangle is twice the base, then the area of the triangle is a) .5AB b) AB c) .5AB2 d) B2 e) 2B2 25) If y/x = 1/3 and x + 2y = 10, then x is a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6 SECTION B VERBAL REASONING ( 20 QUESTIONS 30 MINUTES ) DIRECTIONS :- ENITRE SECTION B IS DIVIDED INTO THREE PASSAGES. READ EACH PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND ANSWER QUESTIONS MENTIONED BELOW. PASSAGE – I QUESTION NO 1-6 If one always ought to act so as to produce the best possible circumstances, then morality is extremely demanding. No one could plausibly claim to have met the requirements of this "simple principle." . . . It would seem strange to punish those intending to do good by sentencing them to an impossible task. Also, if the standards of right conduct are as extreme as they seem, then they will preclude the personal projects that humans find most fulfilling. From an analytic perspective, the potential extreme demands of morality are not a "problem." A theory of morality is no less valid simply because it asks great sacrifices. In fact, it is difficult to imagine what kind of constraints could be put on our ethical projects. Shouldn't we reflect on our base prejudices, and not allow them to provide boundaries for our moral reasoning? Thus, it is tempting to simply dismiss the objections to the simple principle. However, in Demands of Morality, Liam Murphy takes these objections seriously for at least two distinct reasons. First, discussion of the simple principle provides an excellent vehicle for a discussion of morality in general. Perhaps, in a way, this is Murphy's attempt at doing philosophy "from the inside out.". . . Second, Murphy's starting point tells us about the nature of his project. Murphy must take seriously the collisions between moral philosophy and our intuitive sense of right and wrong. He [must do so] because his work is best interpreted as intended to forge moral principles from our firm beliefs, and not to proscribe beliefs given a set of moral principles. [Murphy] argues from our considered judgments rather than to them. . . For example, Murphy cites our "simple but firmly held" beliefs as supporting the potency of the over-demandingness objection, and nowhere in the work can one find a source of moral values divorced from human preferences. Murphy does not tell us what set of "firm beliefs" we ought to have. Rather, he speaks to an audience of well-intentioned but unorganized moral realists, and tries to give them principles that represent their considered moral judgments. Murphy starts with this base sense of right and wrong, but recognizes that it needs to be supplemented by reason where our intuitions are confused or conflicting. Perhaps Murphy is looking for the best interpretation of our convictions, the same way certain legal scholars try to find the best interpretation of our Constitution. This approach has disadvantages. Primarily, Murphy's arguments, even if successful, do not provide the kind of motivating force for which moral philosophy has traditionally searched. His work assumes and argues in terms of an inner sense of morality, and his project seeks to deepen that sense. Of course, it is quite possible that the moral viewpoints of humans will not converge, and some humans have no moral sense at all. Thus, it is very easy for the moral skeptic to point out a lack of justification and ignore the entire work. On the other hand, Murphy's choice of a starting point avoids many of the problems of moral philosophy. Justifying the content of moral principles and granting a motivating force to those principles is an extraordinary task. It would be unrealistic to expect all discussions of moral philosophy to derive such justifications. Projects that attempt such a derivation have value, but they are hard pressed to produce logical consequences for everyday life. In the end, Murphy's strategy may have more practical effect than its first-principle counterparts, which do not seem any more likely to convince those that would reject Murphy's premises. 1) The author suggests that the application of Murphy's philosophy to the situations of two different groups: a) would help to solve the problems of one group but not of the other. b) could result in the derivation of two radically different moral principles. c) would be contingent on the two groups sharing the same fundamental beliefs. d) could reconcile any differences between the two groups. 2) Suppose an individual who firmly believes in keeping promises has promised to return a weapon to a person she knows to be extremely dangerous. According to Murphy, which of the following, if true, would WEAKEN the notion that she should return the weapon? a) She also firmly believes that it is morally wrong to assist in any way in a potentially violent act. b) She believes herself to be well-intentioned in matters of right and wrong. c) The belief that one should keep promises is shared by most members of her community. d) She derived her moral beliefs from first-principle ethical philosophy. 3) The passage implies that a moral principle derived from applying Murphy's philosophy to a particular group would be applicable to another group if: a) the first group recommended the principle to the second group. b) the moral viewpoints of the two groups do not converge. c) the members of the second group have no firmly held beliefs. d) the second group shares the same fundamental beliefs as the first group. 4) According to the passage, the existence of individuals who entirely lack a moral sense: a) confirms the notion that moral principles should be derived from the considered judgments of individuals. b) suggests a potential disadvantage of Murphy's philosophical approach. c) supports Murphy's belief that reason is necessary in cases in which intuitions are conflicting or confused. d) proves that first-principle strategies of ethical theorizing will have no more influence over the behavior of individuals than will Murphy's philosophical approach. 5) Which of the following can be inferred about "doing philosophy from the inside out?" a) Murphy was the first philosopher to employ such an approach. b) It allows no place for rational argument in the formation of ethical principles. c) It is fundamentally different from the practice of first-principle philosophy. d) It is designed to dismiss objections to the "simple principle." 6) A school board is debating whether or not to institute a dress code for the school's students. According to Murphy, the best way to come to an ethical decision would be to: a) consult the fundamental beliefs of the board members. b) analyze the results of dress codes instituted at other schools. c) survey the students as to whether or not they would prefer a dress code. d) determine whether or note a dress code has ever been instituted in the school's history. PASSAGE – II QUESTION NO 7-13 Agonistic behavior, or aggression, is exhibited by most of the more than three million species of animals on this planet. Animal behaviorists still disagree on a comprehensive definition of the term, hut aggressive behavior can be loosely described as any action that harms an adversary or compels it to retreat. Aggression may serve many purposes, such as Food gathering, establishing territory, and enforcing social hierarchy. In a general Darwinian sense, however, the purpose of aggressive behavior is to increase the individual animal’s—and thus, the species’—chance of survival. Aggressive behavior may he directed at animals of other species, or it may be conspecific—that is, directed at members of an animal’s own species. One of the most common examples of conspecific aggression occurs in the establishment and maintenance of social hierarchies. In a hierarchy, social dominance is usually established according to physical superiority; the classic example is that of a pecking order among domestic fowl. The dominance hierarchy may be viewed as a means of social control that reduces the incidence of attack within a group. Once established, the hierarchy is rarely threatened by disputes because the inferior animal immediately submits when confronted by a superior. Two basic types of aggressive behavior are common to most species: attack and defensive threat. Each type involves a particular pattern of physiological and behavioral responses, which tends not to vary regardless of the stimulus that provokes it. For example, the pattern of attack behavior in cats involves a series of movements, such as stalking, biting, seizing with the forepaws and scratching with tile hind legs, that changes very little regardless of the stimulus—that is, regardless of who or what the cat is attacking. The cat’s defensive threat response offers another set of closely linked physiological and behavioral patterns. The cardiovascular system begins to pump blood at a faster rate, in preparation for sudden physical activity. The eves narrow and the ears flatten against the side of the cat’s head for protection, and other vulnerable areas of the body such as the stomach and throat are similarly contracted. Growling or hissing noises and erect fur also signal defensive threat. As with the attack response, this pattern of responses is generated with little variation regardless of the nature of the stimulus. Are these aggressive patterns of attack and defensive threat innate, genetically programmed, or are they learned? The answer seems to be a combination of both. A mouse is helpless at birth, but by its l2th day of life can assume a defensive threat position by backing up on its hind legs. By the time it is one month old, the mouse begins to exhibit the attack response. Nonetheless, copious evidence suggests that animals learn and practice aggressive behavior; one need look no further than the sight of a kitten playing with a ball of string. All the elements of attack—stalking, pouncing, biting, and shaking—are part of the game that prepares the kitten for more serious situations later in life. 7) The passage asserts that animal social hierarchies are generally stable because: a) the behavior responses of the group are known by all its members. b) the defensive threat posture quickly stops most conflicts. c) inferior animals usually defer to their physical superior. d) the need for mutual protection from other species inhibits conspecific aggression. 8) According to the author, what is the most significant physiological change undergone by a cat assuming the defensive threat position? a) An increase in cardiovascular activity b) A sudden narrowing of the eyes c) A contraction of the abdominal muscles d) The author does not say which change is most significant 9) Based on the information in the passage about agonistic behavior, it is reasonable to conclude that: I. the purpose of agonistic behavior is to help ensure the survival of the species. II. agonistic behavior is both innate and learned. III. conspecific aggression is more frequent than i aggression. a) I only b) II only c) I and II only d) I,II and III only 10) Which of the following would be most in accord with the information presented in the passage? a) The aggressive behavior of sharks is closely inked to their need to remain in constant motion. b) fine inability of newborn mice to exhibit the attack response proves that aggressive behavior must be learned. c) Most animal species that do riot exhibit aggressive behavior are prevented from doing so by environmental factors. d) Members of a certain species of hawk use the same method to prey on both squirrels and gophers. 11) The author suggests that the question of whether agonistic behavior is genetically programmed or learned: a) still generates considerable controversy among animal behaviorists. b) was first investigated through experiments on mice. c) is outdated since most scientists now believe the genetic element to be most important. d) has been the subject of extensive clinical study. 12) Which of the following topics related to agonistic behavior is NOT explicitly addressed in the passage? a) The physiological changes that accompany attack behavior in cats b) The evolutionary purpose of aggression c) Conspecific aggression that occurs in dominance hierarchies d) The relationship between play and aggression 13) The author of this passage is primarily concerned with: a) analyzing the differences between attack behavior and defensive threat behavior. b) introducing a subject currently debated among animal behaviorists. c) providing a general overview of aggressive behavior in animals. d) illustrating various manifestations of agonistic behavior among mammals. PASSAGE – III QUESTION NO 14 - 20 The rich analysts of Fernand Braudel arid his fellow Annales historians have made significant contributions to historical theory and research. In a departure from traditional historical approaches, the Annales historians assume (as do Marxists) that history cannot be limited to a simple recounting of conscious human actions, but must be understood in the context of forces and material conditions that underlie human behavior. Braudel was the first Annales historian to gain widespread support for the idea that history should synthesize data from various social sciences, especially economics, in order to provide a broader view of human societies over time (although Febvre and Bloch, founders of the Annales school, had originated this approach). Braudel conceived of history as the dynamic interaction of three temporalities. The first of these, the evenmentielle, involved short-lived dramatic events such as battles, revolutions, and the actions of great men, which had preoccupied traditional historians like Carlyle. Conjonctures was Braudel’s term for larger cyclical processes that might last up to half a century. The longue duree, a historical wave of great length, was for Braudel the most fascinating of the three temporalities. Here he focused on those aspects of everyday life that might remain relatively unchanged for centuries. What people ate, what they wore, their means and routes of travel—for Braudel these things create “structures’ that define the limits of potential social change for hundreds of years at a time. Braudel’s concept of the longue duree extended the perspective of historical space as well as time. Until the Annales school, historians had taken the juridical political unit—the nation-state, duchy, or whatever—as their starting point. Yet, when such enormous timespans are considered, geographical features may well have more significance for human populations than national borders, In his doctoral thesis, a seminal work on the Mediterranean during the reign of Philip II, Braudel treated the geohistory of the entire region as a “structure” that had exerted myriad influences on human lifeways since the first settlements on the shores of the Mediterranean Sea. And so the reader is given such arcane information as the list of products that came to Spanish shores from North Africa, the seasonal routes followed by Mediterranean sheep and their shepherds, and the cities where the best ship timber could be bought. Braudel has been faulted for the imprecision of his approach. With his Rabelaisian delight in concrete detail, Braudel vastly extended the realm of relevant phenomena but this very achievement made it difficult to delimit the boundaries of observation, a task necessary to beginning any social investigation. Further, Braudel and other Annales historians minimize the differences among the social sciences. Nevertheless, the many similarly designed studies aimed at both professional and popular audiences indicate that Braudel asked significant questions that traditional historians had overlooked. 14) The primary purpose of the passage is to: a) show how Braudel’s work changed the conception of Mediterranean life held by previous historians. b) evaluate Braudel’s criticisms of traditional and Marxist historiography. c) contrast the perspective of the longue duree with the actions of major historical figures d) outline some of Braudel’s influential conceptions and distinguish them from conventional approaches. 15) The author refers to the work of Febvre and Bloch in order to: a) illustrate the limitations of the Annale tradition of historical interpretation. b) suggest the relevance of economics to historical investigation. c) debate the need for combining various sociological approaches. d) show that previous Annales historians anticipated Braudel’s focus on economics. 16) According to the passage, all of the following are aspects of Braudel’s approach to history EXCEPT that he: a) attempted to draw on various social sciences. b) studied social and economic activities that occurred across national boundaries. c) pointed out the link between increased economic activity and the rise of nationalism. d) examined seemingly unexciting aspects of everyday life. 17) In the third paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with discussing: a) Braudel’s fascination with obscure facts. b) Braudel’s depiction of the role of geography in human history. c) the geography of the Mediterranean region. d) the irrelevance of national borders. 18) The passage suggests that, compared with traditional historians, Annales/i> historians are: a) more interested in other social sciences than in history. b) critical of the achievements of famous historical figures. c) skeptical of the validity of most economic research. d) more interested in the underlying context of human behavior. 19) Which of the Following statements would be most likely to follow the last sentence of the passage? a) Few such studies however, have been written by trained economists. b) It is time, perhaps, for a revival of the Carlylean emphasis on personalities. c) Many historians believe that Braudel’s conception of three distinct “temporalities” is an oversimplification. d) Such diverse works as Gascon’s study of Lyon and Barbara Tuchman’s A Distant Mirror testify to his relevance. 20) The author is critical of Braudel’s perspective for which of the Following reasons a) It seeks structures that underlie all forms of social activity. b) It assumes a greater similarity among the social sciences than actually exists. c) It fails to consider the relationship between short-term events and long-term social activity. d) It rigidly defines boundaries for social analysis. SECTION C ANALYTICAL REASONING ( 20 QUESTIONS 30 MINUTES ) 1) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Eugene finishes two places ahead of Chris in the first race, all of the following will be true EXCEPT: a) Bob finishes ahead of Don. b) Chris finishes two places ahead of Alan. c) Don finishes fourth. d) Bob finishes immediately behind Eugene. e) Chris finishes ahead of Bob. 2) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Don finishes third in the third race, which of the following must be true of that race? a) Alan finishes first. b) Eugene finishes first. c) Bob finishes second. d) Chris finishes second. e) Alan finishes fifth. 3) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Eugene's total for the six races is 36 points, which of the following must be true? a) Bob's total is more than 36 points. b) Chris's total is more than 36 points. c) Alan's total is 36 points. d) Don's total is less than 36 points. e) Don's total is 36 points. 4) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Alan finishes first only once, and Don finishes second exactly twice, the lowest total number of points that Bob can earn in the race is: a) 32 points. b) 38 points. c) 40 points. d) 44 points. e) 48 points. 5) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Alan finishes first in four races, which of the following could earn a total of fewer than 26 points in the six races? a) Bob only. b) Chris only. c) Don only. d) Eugene of Chris. e) Don or Chris. 6) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Frank enters the third race and finishes behind Chris and Don, which of the following must be true of that race? a) Eugene finishes first. b) Alan finishes sixth. c) Don finishes second. d) Frank finishes fifth. e) Chris finishes third. 7) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane wears black shoes she will not wear: a) red stockings. b) a blue skirt. c) a white blouse. d) blue stockings. e) a sky blue blouse. 8) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane is color blind and is unable to determine what outfits went well together, how many possible clothing combinations could she have? a) 24 b) 32 c) 36 d) 44 e) 48 9) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane wears a brown skirt and a white blouse, she could: a) not wear blue stockings. b) not wear brown shoes. c) not wear black shoes. d) wear blue stockings. e) wear red stockings. 10) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. Jane buys a gray scarf. If she wears the new scarf, then she could: a) not wear blue stockings. b) not wear brown stockings. c) not wear black shoes. d) wear a white blouse. e) wear black stockings. 11) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. Jane will never wear: a) blue and red together. b) white and red together. c) gray and blue together. d) white and black together. e) white and red together. 12) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and one is a general practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with one person on each side. 1) Barry is across from the dentist. 2) David is not across from the surgeon. 3) The optometrist is on Ann's immediate left. 4) Cathy is the general practitioner. 5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each other. 6) The general practitioner is not on Cathy's immediate left. 7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist. Which of the following must be true? a) Barry is the dentist. b) The surgeon and general practitioner are women. c) The dentist is across from the surgeon. d) David is the surgeon. e) Cathy is across from Ann. 13) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and one is a general practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with one person on each side. 1) Barry is across from the dentist. 2) David is not across from the surgeon. 3) The optometrist is on Ann's immediate left. 4) Cathy is the general practitioner. 5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each other. 6) The general practitioner is not on Cathy's immediate left. 7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist. If both women leave the table, the a) optometrist and dentist remain. b) surgeon and optometrist remain. c) surgeon and general practitioner remain. d) general practitioner and dentist remain. e) general practitioner and optometrist remain. 14) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which of the following could be false? a) If U works on Saturday, then V works on Sunday. b) If X works on Saturday, then W works on Sunday. c) T can work either day. d) If W works on Saturday and Y works on Sunday, then X works on Sunday. e) If U works on Sunday, then X works on Saturday. 15) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following is an acceptable group of employees that could work on Saturday? a) ZWYST b) UVWYZS c) VWXST d) UZST e) VWZS 16) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. What is the greatest number of employees that can work on Saturday? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6 17) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. If W works on Sunday, then which one of the following must be true? a) X works on Saturday b) Y works on Saturday c) T works on Saturday d) Z works on Saturday e) U works on Saturday 18) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following must be true? a) T always works on the same day as Y. b) S never works on the same day as U. c) Z never works on the same day as X. d) If W works on Sunday, then Y always works on Saturday. e) Only two tellers work on Saturday. 19) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the employees who have the possibility of working on Sunday? a) UWYZ b) UWYS c) UVWXT d) UVWXYT e) UVWXYTS 20) In the earliest stages of common law, a party could have their case heard by a judge only upon the payment of a fee to the court, and then only if the case fit into one of the forms for which there existed a writ. At first the number of such formalized cases of action was very small, but judges invented new forms which brought more cases and greater revenues. Which of the following conclusions is most strongly suggested by the paragraph above? a) In most early cases, the plaintiff rather than the defendant prevailed. b) One of the motivating forces for the early expansion in judicial power was economic considerations. c) The first common law decisions were inconsistent with one another and did not form a coherent body of law. d) Early judges often decided cases in an arbitrary and haphazard manner. e) The judiciary at first had greater power than either the legislature or the executive.

1296

During a given week A programmer spends 1/4 of his time preparing flow chart, 3/8 of his time coding and the rest of the time in debugging the programs. If he works 48 hours during the week , how many hours did he spend debugging the program.

2

If Ever + Since = Darwin then D + a + r + w + i + n is ?

4

There are three types of tickets available for a concert: orchestra , which cost $12 each; balcony, which cost$9 each: and box, which cost $25 each. There were P orchestra tickets , B balcony tickets, and R box tickets sold for the concert. Which of the following expressions gives the percentage of ticket proceeds due to the sale of orchestra tickets?

2

In a class of 60 students, a student of weight 45 Kg leaves the class. The average weight of the class is then increased by 200 gms. What is the average weight of the remaining 59 students in the class?

4

Two trains move in the same direction at 50 kmph and 32 kmph respectively. A man in the slower train observes the 15 seconds elapse before the faster train completely passes by him.

3

Find the distance when they meet from starting point.

1

if the radius of the circle is increased by 6% then its area increased by

4