General Aptitude Interview Questions

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In 1991, was the number of people in City A three times greater then the number of people in City B? 1) In 1991, there were approximately 1.1 million more people in City A than in City B. 2) In 1991, the 300,000 Catholics in City A made up 20% of its population, and the 141,000 Buddhists in City B made up 30% of its population. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.

If the ticket sales s for a company increases 25% from standard sales to 60 tickets sold, then 60 - s =:

All of the tickets for 2 music concerts, X and Y, were either purchased or given away, and the ratio of X tickets to Y was 2 to 1. Of the total number of X tickets and Y tickets, what percentage was purchased? 1) The total number of X tickets and Y tickets, is 240. 2) Of the X tickets, exactly 60% were purchased, and of the Y tickets, exactly 80% were purchased. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.

TCS,

If a and b are positive integers, is a + 4b odd? 1) b is even. 2) a is odd. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.

If q is a multiple of prime numbers, is q a multiple of r? 1) r < 4. 2) q = 18. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.

Susan wants to put up fencing around three sides of her rectangular yard and leave a side of 20 feet unfenced. If the yard has an area of 680 square feet, how many feet of fencing does she need?

A computer store regularly sells all stock at a discount of 20 percent to 40 percent. If an additional 25 percent were deducted from the discount price during a special sale, what would be the lowest possible price of a part costing $16 before any discount?

If "basis points" are defined so that 1 percent is equal to 100 basis points, then 75.5 percent is how many basis points greater than 65.5 percent?

If a triangle has a base B and the altitude of the triangle is twice the base, then the area of the triangle is

TCS,

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How do you convince the retailer to sell you product?

. Select the correct statement a. NEXT SENTENCE and CONTINUE functionally does the same. b. Never can code a DECLARE CURSOR statement in procedure division. c. Edited numeric characters can be included in arithmetic operations. d. The Sub parameters of a DCB parameter are Keyword parameters.

sir i need rrb secunderabad goods guard previous exam model papers

Which of the following does multithreading allow? A. several transactions that require the same program to use one copy of the program. B. many tasks to be allocated to the terminal. C. an audit trail of all files records from all files updated by a particular application

7 students can complete a task of making 9 scientific models in 21 days. How many students can make 3 models in 14 days.

WRITE ABOUT A RECENT VISIT TO A RESTAURANT.

sir am writing aso(assistant statistical officer) exam first time, so please send me previous papers, and syllabus. my optional subject is statistics

Hello!!I have appllied for the post of Jr.Executive(ATC).My educational qualification is B.Tech(IT).I ould like to know if the questions in technical section will be based on IT alone or else also from other subjects also like electrical/electronics/civil/tele communication.I will be grateful for a relevant answer.thank you in advance

When DB2 is run in IMS environment an application can access data in a) Only DB2 database b) Only IMS database c) Both DB2 & IMS databases d) None of the above

6) A store owner decided to raise the price of a particular item by exactly 10%. Of the following which is NOT the new price? a) $1.10 b) $8.80 c) $11.00 d) $57.30 e) $78.10 7) The price of a candy bar is $1.00. The price of a ten pack of the same candy bar is $7.40. The ten pack of candy bars is what percentage cheaper then purchasing ten candy bars individually? a) 18% b) 26% c) 32% d) 48% e) The prices are same 11) In 1991, was the number of people in City A three times greater then the number of people in City B? 1) In 1991, there were approximately 1.1 million more people in City A than in City B. 2) In 1991, the 300,000 Catholics in City A made up 20% of its population, and the 141,000 Buddhists in City B made up 30% of its population. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 13) If the ticket sales s for a company increases 25% from standard sales to 60 tickets sold, then 60 - s =: a) 7 b) 12 c) 18 d) 30 e) 48 14) All of the tickets for 2 music concerts, X and Y, were either purchased or given away, and the ratio of X tickets to Y was 2 to 1. Of the total number of X tickets and Y tickets, what percentage was purchased? 1) The total number of X tickets and Y tickets, is 240. 2) Of the X tickets, exactly 60% were purchased, and of the Y tickets, exactly 80% were purchased. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 15) If a and b are positive integers, is a + 4b odd? 1) b is even. 2) a is odd. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 16) If q is a multiple of prime numbers, is q a multiple of r? 1) r < 4. 2) q = 18. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 17) How many integers between 100 and 150, inclusive, cannot be evenly divided by 3 nor 5? a) 35 b) 27 c) 25 d) 26 e) 28 18) Susan wants to put up fencing around three sides of her rectangular yard and leave a side of 20 feet unfenced. If the yard has an area of 680 square feet, how many feet of fencing does she need? a) 38 b) 44 c) 72 d) 88 e) 97 19) Which of the following equations has a root in common with x2 - 6x + 5 = 0? a) x2 + 1 = 0 b) x2 - x - 2 = 0 c) 2x2 - 2 = 0 d) x2 - 2x - 3 = 0 e) x2 - 10x - 5 = 0 20) A computer store regularly sells all stock at a discount of 20 percent to 40 percent. If an additional 25 percent were deducted from the discount price during a special sale, what would be the lowest possible price of a part costing $16 before any discount? a) $6.80 b) $7.20 c) $9.60 d) $11.30 e) $14.80 21) If "basis points" are defined so that 1 percent is equal to 100 basis points, then 75.5 percent is how many basis points greater than 65.5 percent? a) .01 b) .10 c) 10 d) 100 e) 1000 22) If x + 8y = 20 and x = -3y, then y = a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 e) 8 23) If 2x + y = 10 and x = 3, what is x – y a) -3 b) -1 c) 0 d) 1 e) 3 24) If a triangle has a base B and the altitude of the triangle is twice the base, then the area of the triangle is a) .5AB b) AB c) .5AB2 d) B2 e) 2B2 25) If y/x = 1/3 and x + 2y = 10, then x is a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6 SECTION B VERBAL REASONING ( 20 QUESTIONS 30 MINUTES ) DIRECTIONS :- ENITRE SECTION B IS DIVIDED INTO THREE PASSAGES. READ EACH PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND ANSWER QUESTIONS MENTIONED BELOW. PASSAGE – I QUESTION NO 1-6 If one always ought to act so as to produce the best possible circumstances, then morality is extremely demanding. No one could plausibly claim to have met the requirements of this "simple principle." . . . It would seem strange to punish those intending to do good by sentencing them to an impossible task. Also, if the standards of right conduct are as extreme as they seem, then they will preclude the personal projects that humans find most fulfilling. From an analytic perspective, the potential extreme demands of morality are not a "problem." A theory of morality is no less valid simply because it asks great sacrifices. In fact, it is difficult to imagine what kind of constraints could be put on our ethical projects. Shouldn't we reflect on our base prejudices, and not allow them to provide boundaries for our moral reasoning? Thus, it is tempting to simply dismiss the objections to the simple principle. However, in Demands of Morality, Liam Murphy takes these objections seriously for at least two distinct reasons. First, discussion of the simple principle provides an excellent vehicle for a discussion of morality in general. Perhaps, in a way, this is Murphy's attempt at doing philosophy "from the inside out.". . . Second, Murphy's starting point tells us about the nature of his project. Murphy must take seriously the collisions between moral philosophy and our intuitive sense of right and wrong. He [must do so] because his work is best interpreted as intended to forge moral principles from our firm beliefs, and not to proscribe beliefs given a set of moral principles. [Murphy] argues from our considered judgments rather than to them. . . For example, Murphy cites our "simple but firmly held" beliefs as supporting the potency of the over-demandingness objection, and nowhere in the work can one find a source of moral values divorced from human preferences. Murphy does not tell us what set of "firm beliefs" we ought to have. Rather, he speaks to an audience of well-intentioned but unorganized moral realists, and tries to give them principles that represent their considered moral judgments. Murphy starts with this base sense of right and wrong, but recognizes that it needs to be supplemented by reason where our intuitions are confused or conflicting. Perhaps Murphy is looking for the best interpretation of our convictions, the same way certain legal scholars try to find the best interpretation of our Constitution. This approach has disadvantages. Primarily, Murphy's arguments, even if successful, do not provide the kind of motivating force for which moral philosophy has traditionally searched. His work assumes and argues in terms of an inner sense of morality, and his project seeks to deepen that sense. Of course, it is quite possible that the moral viewpoints of humans will not converge, and some humans have no moral sense at all. Thus, it is very easy for the moral skeptic to point out a lack of justification and ignore the entire work. On the other hand, Murphy's choice of a starting point avoids many of the problems of moral philosophy. Justifying the content of moral principles and granting a motivating force to those principles is an extraordinary task. It would be unrealistic to expect all discussions of moral philosophy to derive such justifications. Projects that attempt such a derivation have value, but they are hard pressed to produce logical consequences for everyday life. In the end, Murphy's strategy may have more practical effect than its first-principle counterparts, which do not seem any more likely to convince those that would reject Murphy's premises. 1) The author suggests that the application of Murphy's philosophy to the situations of two different groups: a) would help to solve the problems of one group but not of the other. b) could result in the derivation of two radically different moral principles. c) would be contingent on the two groups sharing the same fundamental beliefs. d) could reconcile any differences between the two groups. 2) Suppose an individual who firmly believes in keeping promises has promised to return a weapon to a person she knows to be extremely dangerous. According to Murphy, which of the following, if true, would WEAKEN the notion that she should return the weapon? a) She also firmly believes that it is morally wrong to assist in any way in a potentially violent act. b) She believes herself to be well-intentioned in matters of right and wrong. c) The belief that one should keep promises is shared by most members of her community. d) She derived her moral beliefs from first-principle ethical philosophy. 3) The passage implies that a moral principle derived from applying Murphy's philosophy to a particular group would be applicable to another group if: a) the first group recommended the principle to the second group. b) the moral viewpoints of the two groups do not converge. c) the members of the second group have no firmly held beliefs. d) the second group shares the same fundamental beliefs as the first group. 4) According to the passage, the existence of individuals who entirely lack a moral sense: a) confirms the notion that moral principles should be derived from the considered judgments of individuals. b) suggests a potential disadvantage of Murphy's philosophical approach. c) supports Murphy's belief that reason is necessary in cases in which intuitions are conflicting or confused. d) proves that first-principle strategies of ethical theorizing will have no more influence over the behavior of individuals than will Murphy's philosophical approach. 5) Which of the following can be inferred about "doing philosophy from the inside out?" a) Murphy was the first philosopher to employ such an approach. b) It allows no place for rational argument in the formation of ethical principles. c) It is fundamentally different from the practice of first-principle philosophy. d) It is designed to dismiss objections to the "simple principle." 6) A school board is debating whether or not to institute a dress code for the school's students. According to Murphy, the best way to come to an ethical decision would be to: a) consult the fundamental beliefs of the board members. b) analyze the results of dress codes instituted at other schools. c) survey the students as to whether or not they would prefer a dress code. d) determine whether or note a dress code has ever been instituted in the school's history. PASSAGE – II QUESTION NO 7-13 Agonistic behavior, or aggression, is exhibited by most of the more than three million species of animals on this planet. Animal behaviorists still disagree on a comprehensive definition of the term, hut aggressive behavior can be loosely described as any action that harms an adversary or compels it to retreat. Aggression may serve many purposes, such as Food gathering, establishing territory, and enforcing social hierarchy. In a general Darwinian sense, however, the purpose of aggressive behavior is to increase the individual animal’s—and thus, the species’—chance of survival. Aggressive behavior may he directed at animals of other species, or it may be conspecific—that is, directed at members of an animal’s own species. One of the most common examples of conspecific aggression occurs in the establishment and maintenance of social hierarchies. In a hierarchy, social dominance is usually established according to physical superiority; the classic example is that of a pecking order among domestic fowl. The dominance hierarchy may be viewed as a means of social control that reduces the incidence of attack within a group. Once established, the hierarchy is rarely threatened by disputes because the inferior animal immediately submits when confronted by a superior. Two basic types of aggressive behavior are common to most species: attack and defensive threat. Each type involves a particular pattern of physiological and behavioral responses, which tends not to vary regardless of the stimulus that provokes it. For example, the pattern of attack behavior in cats involves a series of movements, such as stalking, biting, seizing with the forepaws and scratching with tile hind legs, that changes very little regardless of the stimulus—that is, regardless of who or what the cat is attacking. The cat’s defensive threat response offers another set of closely linked physiological and behavioral patterns. The cardiovascular system begins to pump blood at a faster rate, in preparation for sudden physical activity. The eves narrow and the ears flatten against the side of the cat’s head for protection, and other vulnerable areas of the body such as the stomach and throat are similarly contracted. Growling or hissing noises and erect fur also signal defensive threat. As with the attack response, this pattern of responses is generated with little variation regardless of the nature of the stimulus. Are these aggressive patterns of attack and defensive threat innate, genetically programmed, or are they learned? The answer seems to be a combination of both. A mouse is helpless at birth, but by its l2th day of life can assume a defensive threat position by backing up on its hind legs. By the time it is one month old, the mouse begins to exhibit the attack response. Nonetheless, copious evidence suggests that animals learn and practice aggressive behavior; one need look no further than the sight of a kitten playing with a ball of string. All the elements of attack—stalking, pouncing, biting, and shaking—are part of the game that prepares the kitten for more serious situations later in life. 7) The passage asserts that animal social hierarchies are generally stable because: a) the behavior responses of the group are known by all its members. b) the defensive threat posture quickly stops most conflicts. c) inferior animals usually defer to their physical superior. d) the need for mutual protection from other species inhibits conspecific aggression. 8) According to the author, what is the most significant physiological change undergone by a cat assuming the defensive threat position? a) An increase in cardiovascular activity b) A sudden narrowing of the eyes c) A contraction of the abdominal muscles d) The author does not say which change is most significant 9) Based on the information in the passage about agonistic behavior, it is reasonable to conclude that: I. the purpose of agonistic behavior is to help ensure the survival of the species. II. agonistic behavior is both innate and learned. III. conspecific aggression is more frequent than i aggression. a) I only b) II only c) I and II only d) I,II and III only 10) Which of the following would be most in accord with the information presented in the passage? a) The aggressive behavior of sharks is closely inked to their need to remain in constant motion. b) fine inability of newborn mice to exhibit the attack response proves that aggressive behavior must be learned. c) Most animal species that do riot exhibit aggressive behavior are prevented from doing so by environmental factors. d) Members of a certain species of hawk use the same method to prey on both squirrels and gophers. 11) The author suggests that the question of whether agonistic behavior is genetically programmed or learned: a) still generates considerable controversy among animal behaviorists. b) was first investigated through experiments on mice. c) is outdated since most scientists now believe the genetic element to be most important. d) has been the subject of extensive clinical study. 12) Which of the following topics related to agonistic behavior is NOT explicitly addressed in the passage? a) The physiological changes that accompany attack behavior in cats b) The evolutionary purpose of aggression c) Conspecific aggression that occurs in dominance hierarchies d) The relationship between play and aggression 13) The author of this passage is primarily concerned with: a) analyzing the differences between attack behavior and defensive threat behavior. b) introducing a subject currently debated among animal behaviorists. c) providing a general overview of aggressive behavior in animals. d) illustrating various manifestations of agonistic behavior among mammals. PASSAGE – III QUESTION NO 14 - 20 The rich analysts of Fernand Braudel arid his fellow Annales historians have made significant contributions to historical theory and research. In a departure from traditional historical approaches, the Annales historians assume (as do Marxists) that history cannot be limited to a simple recounting of conscious human actions, but must be understood in the context of forces and material conditions that underlie human behavior. Braudel was the first Annales historian to gain widespread support for the idea that history should synthesize data from various social sciences, especially economics, in order to provide a broader view of human societies over time (although Febvre and Bloch, founders of the Annales school, had originated this approach). Braudel conceived of history as the dynamic interaction of three temporalities. The first of these, the evenmentielle, involved short-lived dramatic events such as battles, revolutions, and the actions of great men, which had preoccupied traditional historians like Carlyle. Conjonctures was Braudel’s term for larger cyclical processes that might last up to half a century. The longue duree, a historical wave of great length, was for Braudel the most fascinating of the three temporalities. Here he focused on those aspects of everyday life that might remain relatively unchanged for centuries. What people ate, what they wore, their means and routes of travel—for Braudel these things create “structures’ that define the limits of potential social change for hundreds of years at a time. Braudel’s concept of the longue duree extended the perspective of historical space as well as time. Until the Annales school, historians had taken the juridical political unit—the nation-state, duchy, or whatever—as their starting point. Yet, when such enormous timespans are considered, geographical features may well have more significance for human populations than national borders, In his doctoral thesis, a seminal work on the Mediterranean during the reign of Philip II, Braudel treated the geohistory of the entire region as a “structure” that had exerted myriad influences on human lifeways since the first settlements on the shores of the Mediterranean Sea. And so the reader is given such arcane information as the list of products that came to Spanish shores from North Africa, the seasonal routes followed by Mediterranean sheep and their shepherds, and the cities where the best ship timber could be bought. Braudel has been faulted for the imprecision of his approach. With his Rabelaisian delight in concrete detail, Braudel vastly extended the realm of relevant phenomena but this very achievement made it difficult to delimit the boundaries of observation, a task necessary to beginning any social investigation. Further, Braudel and other Annales historians minimize the differences among the social sciences. Nevertheless, the many similarly designed studies aimed at both professional and popular audiences indicate that Braudel asked significant questions that traditional historians had overlooked. 14) The primary purpose of the passage is to: a) show how Braudel’s work changed the conception of Mediterranean life held by previous historians. b) evaluate Braudel’s criticisms of traditional and Marxist historiography. c) contrast the perspective of the longue duree with the actions of major historical figures d) outline some of Braudel’s influential conceptions and distinguish them from conventional approaches. 15) The author refers to the work of Febvre and Bloch in order to: a) illustrate the limitations of the Annale tradition of historical interpretation. b) suggest the relevance of economics to historical investigation. c) debate the need for combining various sociological approaches. d) show that previous Annales historians anticipated Braudel’s focus on economics. 16) According to the passage, all of the following are aspects of Braudel’s approach to history EXCEPT that he: a) attempted to draw on various social sciences. b) studied social and economic activities that occurred across national boundaries. c) pointed out the link between increased economic activity and the rise of nationalism. d) examined seemingly unexciting aspects of everyday life. 17) In the third paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with discussing: a) Braudel’s fascination with obscure facts. b) Braudel’s depiction of the role of geography in human history. c) the geography of the Mediterranean region. d) the irrelevance of national borders. 18) The passage suggests that, compared with traditional historians, Annales/i> historians are: a) more interested in other social sciences than in history. b) critical of the achievements of famous historical figures. c) skeptical of the validity of most economic research. d) more interested in the underlying context of human behavior. 19) Which of the Following statements would be most likely to follow the last sentence of the passage? a) Few such studies however, have been written by trained economists. b) It is time, perhaps, for a revival of the Carlylean emphasis on personalities. c) Many historians believe that Braudel’s conception of three distinct “temporalities” is an oversimplification. d) Such diverse works as Gascon’s study of Lyon and Barbara Tuchman’s A Distant Mirror testify to his relevance. 20) The author is critical of Braudel’s perspective for which of the Following reasons a) It seeks structures that underlie all forms of social activity. b) It assumes a greater similarity among the social sciences than actually exists. c) It fails to consider the relationship between short-term events and long-term social activity. d) It rigidly defines boundaries for social analysis. SECTION C ANALYTICAL REASONING ( 20 QUESTIONS 30 MINUTES ) 1) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Eugene finishes two places ahead of Chris in the first race, all of the following will be true EXCEPT: a) Bob finishes ahead of Don. b) Chris finishes two places ahead of Alan. c) Don finishes fourth. d) Bob finishes immediately behind Eugene. e) Chris finishes ahead of Bob. 2) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Don finishes third in the third race, which of the following must be true of that race? a) Alan finishes first. b) Eugene finishes first. c) Bob finishes second. d) Chris finishes second. e) Alan finishes fifth. 3) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Eugene's total for the six races is 36 points, which of the following must be true? a) Bob's total is more than 36 points. b) Chris's total is more than 36 points. c) Alan's total is 36 points. d) Don's total is less than 36 points. e) Don's total is 36 points. 4) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Alan finishes first only once, and Don finishes second exactly twice, the lowest total number of points that Bob can earn in the race is: a) 32 points. b) 38 points. c) 40 points. d) 44 points. e) 48 points. 5) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Alan finishes first in four races, which of the following could earn a total of fewer than 26 points in the six races? a) Bob only. b) Chris only. c) Don only. d) Eugene of Chris. e) Don or Chris. 6) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Frank enters the third race and finishes behind Chris and Don, which of the following must be true of that race? a) Eugene finishes first. b) Alan finishes sixth. c) Don finishes second. d) Frank finishes fifth. e) Chris finishes third. 7) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane wears black shoes she will not wear: a) red stockings. b) a blue skirt. c) a white blouse. d) blue stockings. e) a sky blue blouse. 8) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane is color blind and is unable to determine what outfits went well together, how many possible clothing combinations could she have? a) 24 b) 32 c) 36 d) 44 e) 48 9) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane wears a brown skirt and a white blouse, she could: a) not wear blue stockings. b) not wear brown shoes. c) not wear black shoes. d) wear blue stockings. e) wear red stockings. 10) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. Jane buys a gray scarf. If she wears the new scarf, then she could: a) not wear blue stockings. b) not wear brown stockings. c) not wear black shoes. d) wear a white blouse. e) wear black stockings. 11) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. Jane will never wear: a) blue and red together. b) white and red together. c) gray and blue together. d) white and black together. e) white and red together. 12) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and one is a general practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with one person on each side. 1) Barry is across from the dentist. 2) David is not across from the surgeon. 3) The optometrist is on Ann's immediate left. 4) Cathy is the general practitioner. 5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each other. 6) The general practitioner is not on Cathy's immediate left. 7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist. Which of the following must be true? a) Barry is the dentist. b) The surgeon and general practitioner are women. c) The dentist is across from the surgeon. d) David is the surgeon. e) Cathy is across from Ann. 13) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and one is a general practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with one person on each side. 1) Barry is across from the dentist. 2) David is not across from the surgeon. 3) The optometrist is on Ann's immediate left. 4) Cathy is the general practitioner. 5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each other. 6) The general practitioner is not on Cathy's immediate left. 7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist. If both women leave the table, the a) optometrist and dentist remain. b) surgeon and optometrist remain. c) surgeon and general practitioner remain. d) general practitioner and dentist remain. e) general practitioner and optometrist remain. 14) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which of the following could be false? a) If U works on Saturday, then V works on Sunday. b) If X works on Saturday, then W works on Sunday. c) T can work either day. d) If W works on Saturday and Y works on Sunday, then X works on Sunday. e) If U works on Sunday, then X works on Saturday. 15) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following is an acceptable group of employees that could work on Saturday? a) ZWYST b) UVWYZS c) VWXST d) UZST e) VWZS 16) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. What is the greatest number of employees that can work on Saturday? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6 17) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. If W works on Sunday, then which one of the following must be true? a) X works on Saturday b) Y works on Saturday c) T works on Saturday d) Z works on Saturday e) U works on Saturday 18) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following must be true? a) T always works on the same day as Y. b) S never works on the same day as U. c) Z never works on the same day as X. d) If W works on Sunday, then Y always works on Saturday. e) Only two tellers work on Saturday. 19) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the employees who have the possibility of working on Sunday? a) UWYZ b) UWYS c) UVWXT d) UVWXYT e) UVWXYTS 20) In the earliest stages of common law, a party could have their case heard by a judge only upon the payment of a fee to the court, and then only if the case fit into one of the forms for which there existed a writ. At first the number of such formalized cases of action was very small, but judges invented new forms which brought more cases and greater revenues. Which of the following conclusions is most strongly suggested by the paragraph above? a) In most early cases, the plaintiff rather than the defendant prevailed. b) One of the motivating forces for the early expansion in judicial power was economic considerations. c) The first common law decisions were inconsistent with one another and did not form a coherent body of law. d) Early judges often decided cases in an arbitrary and haphazard manner. e) The judiciary at first had greater power than either the legislature or the executive.

sadrine's avg on four tests is 80 which of the following cannot be the number of tests on which she earned exactly 80 points

im swetha... is the chances 4 science graduates are less when compared with arts & commerce graduates 4 a bank job? why im asking bcoz, i attended for four banks interview like sbi[2], bank of baroda, karur vysya bank after selected in the written test. i attended interview very well. but not.. why this?

1. Nine students in a science class separately weighed a small object on the same scale. The weights (in grams) recorded by each student are shown below. 6.2 6.0 6.0 15.3 6.1 6.3 6.2 6.329 6.2 The students want to determine as accurately as they can the actual weight of this object. Of the following methods, which would you recommend they use? a. Use the most common number, which is 6.2 b. Use the 6.329 since it includes more decimal places. c. Add up the 9 numbers and divide by 9. d. Throw out the 15.3, add up the other 8 numbers and divide by 8. 2. The following message is printed on a bottle of prescription medication: WARNING: For application to skin areas there is a 15% chance of developing a rash. If a rash develops, consult your physician. Which of the following is the best interpretation of this warning? a. Don’t use the medication on your skin-- there’s a good chance of developing a rash. b. For application to the skin, apply only 15% of the recommended dose. c. If a rash develops, it will probably involve only 15% of the skin. d. About 15 of 100 people who use this medication develop a rash. e. There is hardly a chance of getting a rash using this medication. 3. The Springfield Meteorological Center wanted to determine the accuracy of their weather forecasts. They searched their records for those days when forecasts had reported a 70% chance of rain. They compared their forecasts to records of whether or not it actually rained on those particular days. The forecast of 70% chance of rain can be considered very accurate if it rained on: a. 95%-100% of those days. b. 85%-94% of those days. c. 75%-84% of those days. d. 65%-74% of those days. e. 55%-64% of those days. 4. A teacher wants to change the seating arrangement in her class in the hopes that it will increase the number of comments her students make. She first decides to see how many comments students make with the current seating arrangement. A record of the number of comments made by her 8 students during one class period is shown below. ____ _Student Initials _ A.A R.F. A.G. J.G. C.K. N.K. J.L. A.W. Number of Comments 0 5 2 22 3 2 1 2 . She wants to summarize this data by computing the typical number of comments made that day. Of the following methods, which would you recommend she use? a. Use the most common number, which is 2. b. Add up the 8 numbers and divide by 8. c. Throw out the 22, and then add up the other 7 and divide by 7. d. Throw out the 0, add up the other 7 numbers and divide by 7. For items 5-6 A new medication is being tested to determine its effectiveness in the treatment of eczema, an inflammatory condition of the skin. Thirty patients with eczema were selected to participate in the study. The patients were randomly divided into two groups. Twenty patients in an experimental group received the medication, while ten patients in a control group received no medication. The results after two months are shown below. Experimental group (medication) Control group (no medication) Improved 8 Improved 2 No improvement 12 No Improvement 8 5. Based on the data, I think the medication was: a. somewhat effective b. basically ineffective 6. If you chose option a, select the one If you chose option b, select the explanation below that best describes one explanation below that best your reasoning. describes your reasoning. a. 40% of the people (8/20) in the a. In the control group, experimental group improved. two people improved even without medication. b. 8 people improved in the experimental b. In the experimental group, group while only 2 improved in the more people didn’t get control group better than did (12 vs. 8). c. In the experimental group, the number c. The difference between of people who improved is only 4 less the numbers who than the number who didn’t improve improved and didn’t (12-8), while in the control group the improve is about the difference is 6 (8-2). same in each group (4 vs. 6). d. 40% of the patients in the d. Only 40% of the patients in experimental group improved (8/20), the experimental group while only 20% improved in the improved (8/20), while 20%. control group (2/10). improved in the control group (2/10). Items 7-9 Listed below are several possible reasons one might question the results of the experiment described above. Mark A for every reason you agree with. A = Agree B = Disagree 7. It’s not possible to compare the two groups because there are different numbers of patients in each group. 8. With a sample size of 30, it’s possible that random assignment of patients may have, just by chance, placed the most severe cases in one of the groups. 9. I’m not given enough information about how doctors decided whether or not patients improved. Doctors may have been biased in their judgment. 10. Two containers, labeled A and B, are filled with red and blue marbles in the following quantities. Container Red Blue A 6 4 B 60 40 Each container is shaken vigorously. After choosing one of the containers, you will reach in, without looking, draw out a marble. If the marble is blue, you win $50. Which container gives you the best chance of drawing a blue marble? a. Container A (with 6 red and 4 blue) b. Container B (with 60 red and 40 Blue) c. Equal chances from each container. 11. Which of the following sequences is most likely to result from flipping a fair coin five times? (H=Heads, T=Tails) a. H H H T T b. T H H T H c. T H T T T d. H T H T H e. All four are equally likely Items 12-15 Select one or more explanations for possible coin-flipping outcomes. A = Agree B = Disagree 12. Since coin flipping is random, the coin ought to alternate frequently between landing heads and tails. 13. If you repeatedly flipped a coin five times, each of the sequences would occur about as often as any sequence. 14. If you get a couple of heads in a row, the probability of tails on the next flip increases. 15. Every sequence of five flips has exactly the same probability of occurring. 17. Listed below are the same sequences of H’s and T’s that were listed in Item 11. Which of the sequences is least likely to result from flipping a coin 5 times? a. H H H T T b. T H H T H c. T H T T T d. H T H T H e. All four sequences are equally unlikely Items 17-22 A marketing research company was asked to determine how much money teenagers (ages 13-19) spend on recorded music (cassette tapes, CD’s, and DVD’s). The company randomly selected 80 malls located around the country. A field researcher stood in a central location in the mall and passers-by who appeared to be the approximate age were asked to fill out the questionnaire. A total of 2,050 questionnaires were completed by teenagers. On the basis of this survey, the research company reported that the average teenager in this country spends $155 each year on recorded music. Listed below are several statements concerning the survey. Mark A for each statement you agree with. Mark B for each statement you disagree with. A = Agree B = Disagree 17. The average is based on teenagers’ estimates of what they spend and therefore could be quite different from what teenagers actually spend. 18. They should have done the survey at more than 80 malls if they wanted an average based on teenagers throughout the country. 19. The sample of 2,050 teenagers is too small to permit drawing a conclusion about the entire country. 20. They should have asked teenagers coming out of music stores. 21. The average could be a poor estimate of the spending of all teenagers given that teenagers were not randomly chosen to fill out the questionnaire. 22. The average could be a poor estimate of the spending of all teenagers given that only teenagers in malls were sampled. 23. Five faces of a fair die are painted black, and one face is painted white. The die is rolled six times. Which of the following results is more likely? a. Black side up on five of the rolls; white side up on the other roll b. Black side up on all six rolls c. a and b are equally likely 24. Half of all newborn children are girls and half are boys. Hospital A records an average of 50 births a day. Hospital B records an average of 10 births a day. On a particular day, which hospital is more likely to record 80% or more female births. a. Hospital A (with 50 births a day) b. Hospital B (with 10 births a day) c. The two hospitals are equally likely to record such an event. 25. The Caldwells want to buy a new car, and they have narrowed their choices to a Buick or an Oldsmobile. They first consulted an issue of Consumer Reports, which compared rates of repairs for various cars. Records or repairs done on 400 cars of each type showed somewhat fewer mechanical problems with the Buick than the Oldsmobile. The Caldwells then talked to three friends, two Oldsmobile owners, and one former Buick Owner. Both Oldsmobile owners reported having a few mechanical problems, but nothing major. The Buick owner, however, exploded when asked how he liked his car: “First the fuel injection went out-- $250 bucks. Next I started having trouble with the rear end and had to replace it. I finally decided to sell it after the transmission went. I’d never buy another Buick.” The Caldwells want to buy the car that is less likely to require major repair work. Given what they currently know, which car would you recommend that they buy? a. I would recommend they buy the Oldsmobile, primarily because of all the trouble their friend had with his Buick. Since they haven’t heard similar horror stories about an Oldsmobile, they should go with it. b. I would recommend they buy the Buick in spite of their friend’s bad experience. This is just one case, while the information reported in Consumer Report is based on many cases. And according to the data, the Buick is somewhat less likely to require repairs. c. I would tell them that it didn’t matter which car they bought. Even though one of the models might be more likely than the other to require repairs, they could still, just by chance, get stuck with a particular car that would need a lot of repairs. They may as well toss a coin to decide. 26. Forty college students participated in a study of the effect of sleep on test scores. Twenty of the students volunteered to stay up all night studying the night before the test (no sleep group). The other 20 students (the control group) went to bed by 11:00 p.m. on the evening of the test. The test scores for each group are shown in the graphs below. Each dot on the graph represents a particular student’s score. For example, the two dots above 80 in the bottom graph indicate that two students in the sleep group scored 80 on the test. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 Test Scores: No- Sleep Group . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 Test Scores: Sleep Group Examine the two graphs carefully. Then choose from the 6 possible conclusions listed below the one you most agree with. a. The no-sleep group did better because none of these students scored below 40 and, a student in this group achieved the highest score. b. The no-sleep group did better because its average appears to be a little higher than the average of the sleep group. c. There is no difference between the two groups because there is considerable overlap in the scores of the two groups. d. There is no difference between the two groups because the difference between their averages is small compared to the amount of variation in the scores. e. The sleep group did better because its average appears to be a little higher than the average of the no sleep group. Items 27-31 For one month, 500 elementary students kept a daily record of the hours spent watching television. The average number of hours per week spent watching television was 28. The researchers conducting the study also obtained report cards for each of the students. They found that the students who did well in school spent less time watching television than those students who did poorly. Listed below are several possible statements concerning the results of this research. Mark A for each statement you agree with. A = Agree B = Disagree 27. The sample of 500 is too small to permit drawing conclusions. 28. If a student decreases the amount of time spent watching television, his or her performance in school would improve. 29. Even though students who did well watched less television, this doesn’t necessarily mean that watching television hurts school performance. 30. One month is not a long enough period of time to estimate how many hours the students really spend watching television. 31. The research demonstrates that watching television causes poorer performance in school. Items 32-37 The school committee of a small town wanted to determine the average number of children per household in their town. They divided the total number of children in the town by 50, the total number of households. Indicate which statements must be true if the average number of children per household is exactly 2.2. Mark A for the statements you agree with and B for the statements you disagree with. A = Agree B = Disagree 32. Half of the households in the town have more than 2 children. 33. More households in the town have 3 children than have 2 children. 34. There are 110 children in the town. 35. There are 2.2 children in the town for every adult. 36. The most common number of children in a household is 2. 37. More households in the town have 2 children than have 3 children. 38. When two dice are simultaneously thrown it is possible that one of the following two results occurs: Result 1: A 5 and a 6 are obtained. Result 2: A 5 is obtained twice. Select the response that you agree with most: a. The chance of obtaining each of these results is equal. b. There is more chance of obtaining Result 1. c. There is more chance of obtaining Result 2. d. It is impossible to give an answer. 39. When three dice are simultaneously thrown, which of the following results is MOST LIKELY to be obtained? a. Result 1: A 5, a 3 and a 6 b. Result 2: A 5 three times c. Result 3: A 5 twice and a 3 d. All three results are equally likely 40. When three dice are simultaneously thrown, which of these three results is LEAST LIKELY to be obtained? a. Result 1: A 5, a 3 and a 6 b. Result 2: A 5 three times c. Result 3: A 5 twice and a 3 d. All three results are equally unlikely

sir , i hv done 85 correct question in ssc cgl-tier-i 2010 after checking through my source which is correct , tell me whether i m eleigible for tier-ii or not charan , jalandhar

Why do we buy you?