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In Rankine Cycle we use the concept of Tm(mean temperature of heat addition).In actual cycle the efficiency comes as n=1-T2/T1 Taking Tm into consideration it comes as n=1-T2/Tm as T1>Tm so the efficiency for both case will not same for a same cycle. Can anybody explain how it is possible? Advance appreciation for your effort.Thanks
7. What are the different types of conventional and non conventional machining processes
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