Which of the following satisfies a two-factor user
authentication?
A. Iris scanning plus finger print scanning
B. Terminal ID plus global positioning system (GPS)
C. A smart card requiring the user's PIN
D. User ID along with password
Answer / guest
Answer: C
A smart card addresses what the user has. This is generally
used in conjunction with testing what the user knows, e.g.,
a key board password or personal identification number
(PIN). Proving who the user is usually requires a biometrics
method, such as finger print, iris scan or voice
verification, to prove biology. This is not a two-factor
user authentication because it proves only who the user is.
A global positioning system (GPS) receiver reports on where
the user is. An ID and password (what the user knows), is a
single-factor user authentication.
| Is This Answer Correct ? | 4 Yes | 1 No |
With reference to the risk management process, which of the following statements is correct? A. Vulnerabilities can be exploited by a threat. B. Vulnerabilities are events with the potential to cause harm to IS resources. C. Vulnerability exists because of threats associated with use of information resources. D. Lack of user knowledge is an example of a threat.
Which of the following is an example of the physiological biometrics technique? A. Hand scans B. Voice scans C. Signature scans D. Keystroke monitoring
A primary function of risk management is the identification of cost-effective controls. In selecting appropriate controls, which of the following methods is best to study the effectiveness of adding various safeguards in reducing vulnerabilities? A. "What if" analysis B. Traditional cost/benefit analysis C. Screening analysis D. A "back-of-the-envelope" analysis
Confidential data residing on a PC is BEST protected by: A. a password. B. file encryption. C. removable diskettes. D. a key operated power source.
Which of the following would be a compensating control to mitigate risks resulting from an inadequate segregation of duties? A. Sequence check B. Check digit C. Source documentation retention D. Batch control reconciliations
When reviewing a business process reengineering (BPR) project, which of the following is the MOST important for an IS auditor to evaluate? A. The impact of removed controls. B. The cost of new controls. C. The BPR project plans. D. The continuous improvement and monitoring plans.
In a TCP/IP-based network, an IP address specifies a: A. network connection. B. router/gateway. C. computer in the network. D. device on the network.
Which of the following is a continuity plan test that uses actual resources to simulate a system crash to cost-effectively obtain evidence about the plan's effectiveness? A. Paper test B. Post test C. Preparedness test D. Walk-through
IS auditors who have participated in the development of an application system might have their independence impaired if they: A. perform an application development review. B. recommend control and other system enhancements. C. perform an independent evaluation of the application after its implementation. D. are involved actively in the design and implementation of the application system.
The use of coding standards is encouraged by IS auditors because they: A. define access control tables. B. detail program documentation. C. standardize dataflow diagram methodology. D. ensure compliance with field naming conventions.
Which of the following has the LEAST effect on controlling physical access? A. Access to the work area is restricted through a swipe card. B. All physical assets have an identification tag and are properly recorded. C. Access to the premises is restricted and all visitors authorized for entry. D. Visitors are issued a pass and escorted in and out by a concerned employee.
When an organization's network is connected to an external network in an Internet client-server model not under that organization's control, security becomes a concern. In providing adequate security in this environment, which of the following assurance levels is LEAST important? A. Server and client authentication B. Data integrity C. Data recovery D. Data confidentiality