When developing a risk management program, the FIRST
activity to be performed is a/an:
A. threats assessment.
B. classification of data.
C. inventory of assets.
D. criticality analysis.
Answer / guest
Answer: C
Identification of the assets to be protected is the first
step in the development of a risk management program. A
listing of the threats that can affect the performance of
these assets and criticality analysis are later steps in the
process. Data classification is required for defining access
controls, and in criticality analysis.
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Which of the following should concern an IS auditor when reviewing security in a client-server environment? A. Data is protected by an encryption technique. B. Diskless workstations prevent unauthorized access. C. Ability of users to access and modify the database directly. D. Disabling floppy drives on the users machines.
Which of the ISO/OSI model layers provides for routing packets between nodes? A. Data link B. Network C. Transport D. Session
A MAJOR risk of using single sign-on (SSO) is that it: A. has a single authentication point. B. represents a single point of failure. C. causes an administrative bottleneck. D. leads to a lockout of valid users.
Which of the following steps would an IS auditor normally perform FIRST in a data center security review? A. Evaluate physical access test results. B. Determine the risks/threats to the data center site. C. Review business continuity procedures. D. Test for evidence of physical access at suspect locations.
Which of the following statements relating to packet switching networks is CORRECT? A. Packets for a given message travel the same route. B. Passwords cannot be embedded within the packet. C. Packet lengths are variable and each packet contains the same amount of information. D. The cost charged for transmission is based on packet, not distance or route traveled.
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E-mail message authenticity and confidentiality is BEST achieved by signing the message using the: A. sender's private key and encrypting the message using the receiver's public key. B. sender's public key and encrypting the message using the receiver's private key. C. the receiver's private key and encrypting the message using the sender's public key. D. the receiver's public key and encrypting the message using the sender's private key.
The PRIMARY purpose of compliance tests is to verify whether: A. controls are implemented as prescribed. B. documentation is accurate and current. C. access to users is provided as specified. D. data validation procedures are provided.
To prevent unauthorized entry to the data maintained in a dial-up fast response system, an IS auditor should recommend: A. online terminals be placed in restricted areas. B. online terminals be equipped with key locks. C. ID cards be required to gain access to online terminals. D. online access be terminated after three unsuccessful attempts.
Which of the following is an objective of a control self-assessment (CSA) program? A. Concentration on areas of high risk B. Replacement of audit responsibilities C. Completion of control questionnaires D. Collaborative facilitative workshops
The PRIMARY benefit of database normalization is the: A. minimization redundancy of information in tables required to satisfy users? needs. B. ability to satisfy more queries. C. maximization of database integrity by providing information in more than one table. D. minimization of response time through faster processing of information.
An IS auditor performing an audit of the company's IS strategy would be LEAST likely to: A. assess IS security procedures. B. review both short- and long-term IS strategies. C. interview appropriate corporate management personnel. D. ensure that the external environment has been considered.
Which of the following protocols would be involved in the implementation of a router and interconnectivity device monitoring system? A. Simple network management B. File transfer C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol D. Telnet