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define the zero date in project management

Answer Posted / sarat

In a Power Plant Project, the date on which a contract document is signed with the EPC contractor for BTG Package is considered as a Zero Date

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You need to convey some very complex, detailed information to the project stakeholders. The best method of communicating this kind of information is? A. Verbal B. Vertical C. Horizontal D. Written

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You are the project manager for Heartthrobs by the Numbers Dating Services. You’re working on an updated Internet site that will display pictures as well as short bios of prospective heartbreakers. You have your activity list and resource requirements in hand and are planning on using qualitatively based durations and reserve time to determine activity durations. Which of the following is true? A. You are using inputs of the Activity Duration Estimating process. B. You are using tools and techniques of the Cost Estimating process. C. You are using tools and techniques of the Activity Duration Estimating process. D. You are using inputs of the Cost Estimating process.

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You've constructed the WBS for your recent project. Level two assignments have been made, and you've requested that the sub project manager’s report back to you in 3 weeks with each of their individual WBS constructed. All of the following are true except: A. The work package level facilitates resource assignments. B. The work package level is the lowest level in the WBS. C. The work package level defines the agreed-upon deliverables. D. The work package level facilitates cost and time estimates. ?

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You have collected the performance measurement documentation for your project to be included in the project archives. What is the purpose of the performance measurement documentation? A. It's used as part of the formal acceptance process to verify contract expenditures. B. It's reviewed to make certain the project goals and objectives were met. C. It's included in the project archive documentation after confirming the accuracy of the measurements. D. It’s used as historical information for future project that are similar in scope to this project.

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All of the following are true regarding configuration management except: A. Requires all acceptance decisions to be made through the CCB B. Serves as a change control system C. Describes the physical characteristics of the product of the project D. Controls changes to the characteristics of an item or system

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Which of the following is true regarding the scope statement? A. It describes how to make changes to project scope. B. It describes project deliverables and serves as a baseline for future project decisions. C. It assesses the stability of the project scope and is a baseline for future project decisions. D. It assesses the reliability of the project scope and describes the frequency of changes and their impacts.

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These diagrams rank order factors for corrective action by frequency of occurrence. They are also a type of histogram: A. Control charts B. Process flowcharts C. Scatter diagrams D. Pareto diagrams

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You are an international project manager from the United States living in a foreign country. The project you're working on has lasted two-and-a-half years. During that time, you've really gotten to feel comfortable in the foreign country and have enjoyed living in their culture. The project has just ended, and you've returned to the United States. Upon your return, you're surprised to find that you're feeling a little disoriented as you've gotten so used to the foreign culture and its slower pace that you've forgotten what some things are like in the US. This experience is known as: A. Diversity shock B. Global norming C. Culture shock D. Culture norming

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Which of the following describes the cost of quality associated with scrapping, rework, and downtime? A. Internal failure costs B. External failure costs C. Prevention costs D. Appraisal costs

916


The Project Integration Management knowledge area is made up of which of the following processes? A. Initiation, Project Plan Development, and Integrated Change Control B. Project Plan Development, Project Plan Execution, and Integrated. C. Project Plan Development, Initiation, and Scope Planning D. Initiation, Scope Planning, and Integrated Change Control

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You are the project manager for the Late Night Smooth Jazz Club chain, with stores in 12 states. Smooth Jazz is considering opening a new club in Kansas City or Spokane. You have derived the following information: Project Kansas City: The payback period is 27 months, and the IRR is 35 percent. Project Spokane: The payback period is 25 months, and the IRR is 32 percent. Which project should you recommend to the selection committee? A. Project Spokane because the payback period is shortest B. Project Kansas City because the IRR is highest C. Project Spokane because the IRR is lowest D. Project Kansas City because the payback period is longest ?

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What are the Scope Planning process tools and techniques? A. Benefit/cost analysis, work breakdown structure templates, expert judgment, and supporting detail B. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternatives identification, and expert judgment C. Product analysis, work breakdown structure templates, supporting detail, and expert judgment D. Benefit/cost analysis, alternatives identification, supporting detail, and expert judgment

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What are the csfs in the software project management ?

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You are the project manager for a new website for the local zoo. You need to perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. When you've completed this process, you'll produce all of the following outputs except: A. Overall risk ranking for the project B. List of prioritized risks C. Inputs to other processes D. List of risks for additional analysis and management

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Your hardware vendor left you voicemail saying that a snowstorm in the Midwest will prevent your equipment from arriving on time. You identified a risk response for this risk and have arranged for a local company to lease you the needed equipment until yours arrives. This is an example of which risk response strategy? A. Transference B. Acceptance C. Mitigation D. Avoidance

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