Interested to Buy Any Domain ? << Click Here >> for more details...
Can we use an equated value as operand for an MVC
instruction? Reason for the same
- 8 Answers
- 13729 Views
- IBM, I also Faced
- E-Mail Answers
Answer Posted / phil
If you write an MVC statement with an equated value as the
sending operand, then the assembler will try to resolve that
operand value as a base and displacement, it will not
necessarily throw an error at assembly, but the results at
execution will be unpredictable and may well give rise to a
protection exception.
The point of the MVI statement is that the single byte
sending operand value is assembled as part of the
instruction itself and does not have to be 'fetched' at
execution time, therefore if you are only moving a single
byte of fixed value, then an MVI will be marginally more
efficient than an MVC
| Is This Answer Correct ? | 4 Yes | 3 No |
Post New Answer View All Answers
Why do we use "drop"?
What is maximum displacement and how to cross this limit?
Explain how to pass instream data in sysin with assembler?
Explain about house keeping in assembler?
explain icm instruction?
What is the use of trt instruction?
What is need of start 0? In steed of can we use anyother numerics? If we use what will happen?
How to pass the parameters from jcl to assembler program?
how to initialize a register to 0000?
Explain about base register?
How are data passed from jcl parm to assembler program?
How many maximum base registers we can have in a single program?
How is data passed from a calling program to an assembler called program?
how to retrieve the instream data in sysin?
how to pass the parameters from jcl to assembler pgm?
