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why failure mode effective analysis report are necessary for equipment change control? what is validation risk assessment? how many class of standard calibrated weight balance? how perform magnetics gauge calibration? what is eccentric & centric weight balance calibration? what is different between out of specification & out of trend?
6) A store owner decided to raise the price of a particular item by exactly 10%. Of the following which is NOT the new price? a) $1.10 b) $8.80 c) $11.00 d) $57.30 e) $78.10 7) The price of a candy bar is $1.00. The price of a ten pack of the same candy bar is $7.40. The ten pack of candy bars is what percentage cheaper then purchasing ten candy bars individually? a) 18% b) 26% c) 32% d) 48% e) The prices are same 11) In 1991, was the number of people in City A three times greater then the number of people in City B? 1) In 1991, there were approximately 1.1 million more people in City A than in City B. 2) In 1991, the 300,000 Catholics in City A made up 20% of its population, and the 141,000 Buddhists in City B made up 30% of its population. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 13) If the ticket sales s for a company increases 25% from standard sales to 60 tickets sold, then 60 - s =: a) 7 b) 12 c) 18 d) 30 e) 48 14) All of the tickets for 2 music concerts, X and Y, were either purchased or given away, and the ratio of X tickets to Y was 2 to 1. Of the total number of X tickets and Y tickets, what percentage was purchased? 1) The total number of X tickets and Y tickets, is 240. 2) Of the X tickets, exactly 60% were purchased, and of the Y tickets, exactly 80% were purchased. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 15) If a and b are positive integers, is a + 4b odd? 1) b is even. 2) a is odd. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 16) If q is a multiple of prime numbers, is q a multiple of r? 1) r < 4. 2) q = 18. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 17) How many integers between 100 and 150, inclusive, cannot be evenly divided by 3 nor 5? a) 35 b) 27 c) 25 d) 26 e) 28 18) Susan wants to put up fencing around three sides of her rectangular yard and leave a side of 20 feet unfenced. If the yard has an area of 680 square feet, how many feet of fencing does she need? a) 38 b) 44 c) 72 d) 88 e) 97 19) Which of the following equations has a root in common with x2 - 6x + 5 = 0? a) x2 + 1 = 0 b) x2 - x - 2 = 0 c) 2x2 - 2 = 0 d) x2 - 2x - 3 = 0 e) x2 - 10x - 5 = 0 20) A computer store regularly sells all stock at a discount of 20 percent to 40 percent. If an additional 25 percent were deducted from the discount price during a special sale, what would be the lowest possible price of a part costing $16 before any discount? a) $6.80 b) $7.20 c) $9.60 d) $11.30 e) $14.80 21) If "basis points" are defined so that 1 percent is equal to 100 basis points, then 75.5 percent is how many basis points greater than 65.5 percent? a) .01 b) .10 c) 10 d) 100 e) 1000 22) If x + 8y = 20 and x = -3y, then y = a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 e) 8 23) If 2x + y = 10 and x = 3, what is x – y a) -3 b) -1 c) 0 d) 1 e) 3 24) If a triangle has a base B and the altitude of the triangle is twice the base, then the area of the triangle is a) .5AB b) AB c) .5AB2 d) B2 e) 2B2 25) If y/x = 1/3 and x + 2y = 10, then x is a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6 SECTION B VERBAL REASONING ( 20 QUESTIONS 30 MINUTES ) DIRECTIONS :- ENITRE SECTION B IS DIVIDED INTO THREE PASSAGES. READ EACH PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND ANSWER QUESTIONS MENTIONED BELOW. PASSAGE – I QUESTION NO 1-6 If one always ought to act so as to produce the best possible circumstances, then morality is extremely demanding. No one could plausibly claim to have met the requirements of this "simple principle." . . . It would seem strange to punish those intending to do good by sentencing them to an impossible task. Also, if the standards of right conduct are as extreme as they seem, then they will preclude the personal projects that humans find most fulfilling. From an analytic perspective, the potential extreme demands of morality are not a "problem." A theory of morality is no less valid simply because it asks great sacrifices. In fact, it is difficult to imagine what kind of constraints could be put on our ethical projects. Shouldn't we reflect on our base prejudices, and not allow them to provide boundaries for our moral reasoning? Thus, it is tempting to simply dismiss the objections to the simple principle. However, in Demands of Morality, Liam Murphy takes these objections seriously for at least two distinct reasons. First, discussion of the simple principle provides an excellent vehicle for a discussion of morality in general. Perhaps, in a way, this is Murphy's attempt at doing philosophy "from the inside out.". . . Second, Murphy's starting point tells us about the nature of his project. Murphy must take seriously the collisions between moral philosophy and our intuitive sense of right and wrong. He [must do so] because his work is best interpreted as intended to forge moral principles from our firm beliefs, and not to proscribe beliefs given a set of moral principles. [Murphy] argues from our considered judgments rather than to them. . . For example, Murphy cites our "simple but firmly held" beliefs as supporting the potency of the over-demandingness objection, and nowhere in the work can one find a source of moral values divorced from human preferences. Murphy does not tell us what set of "firm beliefs" we ought to have. Rather, he speaks to an audience of well-intentioned but unorganized moral realists, and tries to give them principles that represent their considered moral judgments. Murphy starts with this base sense of right and wrong, but recognizes that it needs to be supplemented by reason where our intuitions are confused or conflicting. Perhaps Murphy is looking for the best interpretation of our convictions, the same way certain legal scholars try to find the best interpretation of our Constitution. This approach has disadvantages. Primarily, Murphy's arguments, even if successful, do not provide the kind of motivating force for which moral philosophy has traditionally searched. His work assumes and argues in terms of an inner sense of morality, and his project seeks to deepen that sense. Of course, it is quite possible that the moral viewpoints of humans will not converge, and some humans have no moral sense at all. Thus, it is very easy for the moral skeptic to point out a lack of justification and ignore the entire work. On the other hand, Murphy's choice of a starting point avoids many of the problems of moral philosophy. Justifying the content of moral principles and granting a motivating force to those principles is an extraordinary task. It would be unrealistic to expect all discussions of moral philosophy to derive such justifications. Projects that attempt such a derivation have value, but they are hard pressed to produce logical consequences for everyday life. In the end, Murphy's strategy may have more practical effect than its first-principle counterparts, which do not seem any more likely to convince those that would reject Murphy's premises. 1) The author suggests that the application of Murphy's philosophy to the situations of two different groups: a) would help to solve the problems of one group but not of the other. b) could result in the derivation of two radically different moral principles. c) would be contingent on the two groups sharing the same fundamental beliefs. d) could reconcile any differences between the two groups. 2) Suppose an individual who firmly believes in keeping promises has promised to return a weapon to a person she knows to be extremely dangerous. According to Murphy, which of the following, if true, would WEAKEN the notion that she should return the weapon? a) She also firmly believes that it is morally wrong to assist in any way in a potentially violent act. b) She believes herself to be well-intentioned in matters of right and wrong. c) The belief that one should keep promises is shared by most members of her community. d) She derived her moral beliefs from first-principle ethical philosophy. 3) The passage implies that a moral principle derived from applying Murphy's philosophy to a particular group would be applicable to another group if: a) the first group recommended the principle to the second group. b) the moral viewpoints of the two groups do not converge. c) the members of the second group have no firmly held beliefs. d) the second group shares the same fundamental beliefs as the first group. 4) According to the passage, the existence of individuals who entirely lack a moral sense: a) confirms the notion that moral principles should be derived from the considered judgments of individuals. b) suggests a potential disadvantage of Murphy's philosophical approach. c) supports Murphy's belief that reason is necessary in cases in which intuitions are conflicting or confused. d) proves that first-principle strategies of ethical theorizing will have no more influence over the behavior of individuals than will Murphy's philosophical approach. 5) Which of the following can be inferred about "doing philosophy from the inside out?" a) Murphy was the first philosopher to employ such an approach. b) It allows no place for rational argument in the formation of ethical principles. c) It is fundamentally different from the practice of first-principle philosophy. d) It is designed to dismiss objections to the "simple principle." 6) A school board is debating whether or not to institute a dress code for the school's students. According to Murphy, the best way to come to an ethical decision would be to: a) consult the fundamental beliefs of the board members. b) analyze the results of dress codes instituted at other schools. c) survey the students as to whether or not they would prefer a dress code. d) determine whether or note a dress code has ever been instituted in the school's history. PASSAGE – II QUESTION NO 7-13 Agonistic behavior, or aggression, is exhibited by most of the more than three million species of animals on this planet. Animal behaviorists still disagree on a comprehensive definition of the term, hut aggressive behavior can be loosely described as any action that harms an adversary or compels it to retreat. Aggression may serve many purposes, such as Food gathering, establishing territory, and enforcing social hierarchy. In a general Darwinian sense, however, the purpose of aggressive behavior is to increase the individual animal’s—and thus, the species’—chance of survival. Aggressive behavior may he directed at animals of other species, or it may be conspecific—that is, directed at members of an animal’s own species. One of the most common examples of conspecific aggression occurs in the establishment and maintenance of social hierarchies. In a hierarchy, social dominance is usually established according to physical superiority; the classic example is that of a pecking order among domestic fowl. The dominance hierarchy may be viewed as a means of social control that reduces the incidence of attack within a group. Once established, the hierarchy is rarely threatened by disputes because the inferior animal immediately submits when confronted by a superior. Two basic types of aggressive behavior are common to most species: attack and defensive threat. Each type involves a particular pattern of physiological and behavioral responses, which tends not to vary regardless of the stimulus that provokes it. For example, the pattern of attack behavior in cats involves a series of movements, such as stalking, biting, seizing with the forepaws and scratching with tile hind legs, that changes very little regardless of the stimulus—that is, regardless of who or what the cat is attacking. The cat’s defensive threat response offers another set of closely linked physiological and behavioral patterns. The cardiovascular system begins to pump blood at a faster rate, in preparation for sudden physical activity. The eves narrow and the ears flatten against the side of the cat’s head for protection, and other vulnerable areas of the body such as the stomach and throat are similarly contracted. Growling or hissing noises and erect fur also signal defensive threat. As with the attack response, this pattern of responses is generated with little variation regardless of the nature of the stimulus. Are these aggressive patterns of attack and defensive threat innate, genetically programmed, or are they learned? The answer seems to be a combination of both. A mouse is helpless at birth, but by its l2th day of life can assume a defensive threat position by backing up on its hind legs. By the time it is one month old, the mouse begins to exhibit the attack response. Nonetheless, copious evidence suggests that animals learn and practice aggressive behavior; one need look no further than the sight of a kitten playing with a ball of string. All the elements of attack—stalking, pouncing, biting, and shaking—are part of the game that prepares the kitten for more serious situations later in life. 7) The passage asserts that animal social hierarchies are generally stable because: a) the behavior responses of the group are known by all its members. b) the defensive threat posture quickly stops most conflicts. c) inferior animals usually defer to their physical superior. d) the need for mutual protection from other species inhibits conspecific aggression. 8) According to the author, what is the most significant physiological change undergone by a cat assuming the defensive threat position? a) An increase in cardiovascular activity b) A sudden narrowing of the eyes c) A contraction of the abdominal muscles d) The author does not say which change is most significant 9) Based on the information in the passage about agonistic behavior, it is reasonable to conclude that: I. the purpose of agonistic behavior is to help ensure the survival of the species. II. agonistic behavior is both innate and learned. III. conspecific aggression is more frequent than i aggression. a) I only b) II only c) I and II only d) I,II and III only 10) Which of the following would be most in accord with the information presented in the passage? a) The aggressive behavior of sharks is closely inked to their need to remain in constant motion. b) fine inability of newborn mice to exhibit the attack response proves that aggressive behavior must be learned. c) Most animal species that do riot exhibit aggressive behavior are prevented from doing so by environmental factors. d) Members of a certain species of hawk use the same method to prey on both squirrels and gophers. 11) The author suggests that the question of whether agonistic behavior is genetically programmed or learned: a) still generates considerable controversy among animal behaviorists. b) was first investigated through experiments on mice. c) is outdated since most scientists now believe the genetic element to be most important. d) has been the subject of extensive clinical study. 12) Which of the following topics related to agonistic behavior is NOT explicitly addressed in the passage? a) The physiological changes that accompany attack behavior in cats b) The evolutionary purpose of aggression c) Conspecific aggression that occurs in dominance hierarchies d) The relationship between play and aggression 13) The author of this passage is primarily concerned with: a) analyzing the differences between attack behavior and defensive threat behavior. b) introducing a subject currently debated among animal behaviorists. c) providing a general overview of aggressive behavior in animals. d) illustrating various manifestations of agonistic behavior among mammals. PASSAGE – III QUESTION NO 14 - 20 The rich analysts of Fernand Braudel arid his fellow Annales historians have made significant contributions to historical theory and research. In a departure from traditional historical approaches, the Annales historians assume (as do Marxists) that history cannot be limited to a simple recounting of conscious human actions, but must be understood in the context of forces and material conditions that underlie human behavior. Braudel was the first Annales historian to gain widespread support for the idea that history should synthesize data from various social sciences, especially economics, in order to provide a broader view of human societies over time (although Febvre and Bloch, founders of the Annales school, had originated this approach). Braudel conceived of history as the dynamic interaction of three temporalities. The first of these, the evenmentielle, involved short-lived dramatic events such as battles, revolutions, and the actions of great men, which had preoccupied traditional historians like Carlyle. Conjonctures was Braudel’s term for larger cyclical processes that might last up to half a century. The longue duree, a historical wave of great length, was for Braudel the most fascinating of the three temporalities. Here he focused on those aspects of everyday life that might remain relatively unchanged for centuries. What people ate, what they wore, their means and routes of travel—for Braudel these things create “structures’ that define the limits of potential social change for hundreds of years at a time. Braudel’s concept of the longue duree extended the perspective of historical space as well as time. Until the Annales school, historians had taken the juridical political unit—the nation-state, duchy, or whatever—as their starting point. Yet, when such enormous timespans are considered, geographical features may well have more significance for human populations than national borders, In his doctoral thesis, a seminal work on the Mediterranean during the reign of Philip II, Braudel treated the geohistory of the entire region as a “structure” that had exerted myriad influences on human lifeways since the first settlements on the shores of the Mediterranean Sea. And so the reader is given such arcane information as the list of products that came to Spanish shores from North Africa, the seasonal routes followed by Mediterranean sheep and their shepherds, and the cities where the best ship timber could be bought. Braudel has been faulted for the imprecision of his approach. With his Rabelaisian delight in concrete detail, Braudel vastly extended the realm of relevant phenomena but this very achievement made it difficult to delimit the boundaries of observation, a task necessary to beginning any social investigation. Further, Braudel and other Annales historians minimize the differences among the social sciences. Nevertheless, the many similarly designed studies aimed at both professional and popular audiences indicate that Braudel asked significant questions that traditional historians had overlooked. 14) The primary purpose of the passage is to: a) show how Braudel’s work changed the conception of Mediterranean life held by previous historians. b) evaluate Braudel’s criticisms of traditional and Marxist historiography. c) contrast the perspective of the longue duree with the actions of major historical figures d) outline some of Braudel’s influential conceptions and distinguish them from conventional approaches. 15) The author refers to the work of Febvre and Bloch in order to: a) illustrate the limitations of the Annale tradition of historical interpretation. b) suggest the relevance of economics to historical investigation. c) debate the need for combining various sociological approaches. d) show that previous Annales historians anticipated Braudel’s focus on economics. 16) According to the passage, all of the following are aspects of Braudel’s approach to history EXCEPT that he: a) attempted to draw on various social sciences. b) studied social and economic activities that occurred across national boundaries. c) pointed out the link between increased economic activity and the rise of nationalism. d) examined seemingly unexciting aspects of everyday life. 17) In the third paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with discussing: a) Braudel’s fascination with obscure facts. b) Braudel’s depiction of the role of geography in human history. c) the geography of the Mediterranean region. d) the irrelevance of national borders. 18) The passage suggests that, compared with traditional historians, Annales/i> historians are: a) more interested in other social sciences than in history. b) critical of the achievements of famous historical figures. c) skeptical of the validity of most economic research. d) more interested in the underlying context of human behavior. 19) Which of the Following statements would be most likely to follow the last sentence of the passage? a) Few such studies however, have been written by trained economists. b) It is time, perhaps, for a revival of the Carlylean emphasis on personalities. c) Many historians believe that Braudel’s conception of three distinct “temporalities” is an oversimplification. d) Such diverse works as Gascon’s study of Lyon and Barbara Tuchman’s A Distant Mirror testify to his relevance. 20) The author is critical of Braudel’s perspective for which of the Following reasons a) It seeks structures that underlie all forms of social activity. b) It assumes a greater similarity among the social sciences than actually exists. c) It fails to consider the relationship between short-term events and long-term social activity. d) It rigidly defines boundaries for social analysis. SECTION C ANALYTICAL REASONING ( 20 QUESTIONS 30 MINUTES ) 1) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Eugene finishes two places ahead of Chris in the first race, all of the following will be true EXCEPT: a) Bob finishes ahead of Don. b) Chris finishes two places ahead of Alan. c) Don finishes fourth. d) Bob finishes immediately behind Eugene. e) Chris finishes ahead of Bob. 2) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Don finishes third in the third race, which of the following must be true of that race? a) Alan finishes first. b) Eugene finishes first. c) Bob finishes second. d) Chris finishes second. e) Alan finishes fifth. 3) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Eugene's total for the six races is 36 points, which of the following must be true? a) Bob's total is more than 36 points. b) Chris's total is more than 36 points. c) Alan's total is 36 points. d) Don's total is less than 36 points. e) Don's total is 36 points. 4) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Alan finishes first only once, and Don finishes second exactly twice, the lowest total number of points that Bob can earn in the race is: a) 32 points. b) 38 points. c) 40 points. d) 44 points. e) 48 points. 5) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Alan finishes first in four races, which of the following could earn a total of fewer than 26 points in the six races? a) Bob only. b) Chris only. c) Don only. d) Eugene of Chris. e) Don or Chris. 6) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Frank enters the third race and finishes behind Chris and Don, which of the following must be true of that race? a) Eugene finishes first. b) Alan finishes sixth. c) Don finishes second. d) Frank finishes fifth. e) Chris finishes third. 7) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane wears black shoes she will not wear: a) red stockings. b) a blue skirt. c) a white blouse. d) blue stockings. e) a sky blue blouse. 8) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane is color blind and is unable to determine what outfits went well together, how many possible clothing combinations could she have? a) 24 b) 32 c) 36 d) 44 e) 48 9) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane wears a brown skirt and a white blouse, she could: a) not wear blue stockings. b) not wear brown shoes. c) not wear black shoes. d) wear blue stockings. e) wear red stockings. 10) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. Jane buys a gray scarf. If she wears the new scarf, then she could: a) not wear blue stockings. b) not wear brown stockings. c) not wear black shoes. d) wear a white blouse. e) wear black stockings. 11) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. Jane will never wear: a) blue and red together. b) white and red together. c) gray and blue together. d) white and black together. e) white and red together. 12) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and one is a general practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with one person on each side. 1) Barry is across from the dentist. 2) David is not across from the surgeon. 3) The optometrist is on Ann's immediate left. 4) Cathy is the general practitioner. 5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each other. 6) The general practitioner is not on Cathy's immediate left. 7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist. Which of the following must be true? a) Barry is the dentist. b) The surgeon and general practitioner are women. c) The dentist is across from the surgeon. d) David is the surgeon. e) Cathy is across from Ann. 13) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and one is a general practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with one person on each side. 1) Barry is across from the dentist. 2) David is not across from the surgeon. 3) The optometrist is on Ann's immediate left. 4) Cathy is the general practitioner. 5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each other. 6) The general practitioner is not on Cathy's immediate left. 7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist. If both women leave the table, the a) optometrist and dentist remain. b) surgeon and optometrist remain. c) surgeon and general practitioner remain. d) general practitioner and dentist remain. e) general practitioner and optometrist remain. 14) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which of the following could be false? a) If U works on Saturday, then V works on Sunday. b) If X works on Saturday, then W works on Sunday. c) T can work either day. d) If W works on Saturday and Y works on Sunday, then X works on Sunday. e) If U works on Sunday, then X works on Saturday. 15) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following is an acceptable group of employees that could work on Saturday? a) ZWYST b) UVWYZS c) VWXST d) UZST e) VWZS 16) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. What is the greatest number of employees that can work on Saturday? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6 17) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. If W works on Sunday, then which one of the following must be true? a) X works on Saturday b) Y works on Saturday c) T works on Saturday d) Z works on Saturday e) U works on Saturday 18) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following must be true? a) T always works on the same day as Y. b) S never works on the same day as U. c) Z never works on the same day as X. d) If W works on Sunday, then Y always works on Saturday. e) Only two tellers work on Saturday. 19) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the employees who have the possibility of working on Sunday? a) UWYZ b) UWYS c) UVWXT d) UVWXYT e) UVWXYTS 20) In the earliest stages of common law, a party could have their case heard by a judge only upon the payment of a fee to the court, and then only if the case fit into one of the forms for which there existed a writ. At first the number of such formalized cases of action was very small, but judges invented new forms which brought more cases and greater revenues. Which of the following conclusions is most strongly suggested by the paragraph above? a) In most early cases, the plaintiff rather than the defendant prevailed. b) One of the motivating forces for the early expansion in judicial power was economic considerations. c) The first common law decisions were inconsistent with one another and did not form a coherent body of law. d) Early judges often decided cases in an arbitrary and haphazard manner. e) The judiciary at first had greater power than either the legislature or the executive.
6) A store owner decided to raise the price of a particular item by exactly 10%. Of the following which is NOT the new price? a) $1.10 b) $8.80 c) $11.00 d) $57.30 e) $78.10 7) The price of a candy bar is $1.00. The price of a ten pack of the same candy bar is $7.40. The ten pack of candy bars is what percentage cheaper then purchasing ten candy bars individually? a) 18% b) 26% c) 32% d) 48% e) The prices are same 11) In 1991, was the number of people in City A three times greater then the number of people in City B? 1) In 1991, there were approximately 1.1 million more people in City A than in City B. 2) In 1991, the 300,000 Catholics in City A made up 20% of its population, and the 141,000 Buddhists in City B made up 30% of its population. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 12) (165)2 - (164)2 = a) 1 b) 100 c) 229 d) 329 e) 349 13) If the ticket sales s for a company increases 25% from standard sales to 60 tickets sold, then 60 - s =: a) 7 b) 12 c) 18 d) 30 e) 48 14) All of the tickets for 2 music concerts, X and Y, were either purchased or given away, and the ratio of X tickets to Y was 2 to 1. Of the total number of X tickets and Y tickets, what percentage was purchased? 1) The total number of X tickets and Y tickets, is 240. 2) Of the X tickets, exactly 60% were purchased, and of the Y tickets, exactly 80% were purchased. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 15) If a and b are positive integers, is a + 4b odd? 1) b is even. 2) a is odd. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 16) If q is a multiple of prime numbers, is q a multiple of r? 1) r < 4. 2) q = 18. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 17) How many integers between 100 and 150, inclusive, cannot be evenly divided by 3 nor 5? a) 35 b) 27 c) 25 d) 26 e) 28 18) Susan wants to put up fencing around three sides of her rectangular yard and leave a side of 20 feet unfenced. If the yard has an area of 680 square feet, how many feet of fencing does she need? a) 38 b) 44 c) 72 d) 88 e) 97 19) Which of the following equations has a root in common with x2 - 6x + 5 = 0? a) x2 + 1 = 0 b) x2 - x - 2 = 0 c) 2x2 - 2 = 0 d) x2 - 2x - 3 = 0 e) x2 - 10x - 5 = 0 20) A computer store regularly sells all stock at a discount of 20 percent to 40 percent. If an additional 25 percent were deducted from the discount price during a special sale, what would be the lowest possible price of a part costing $16 before any discount? a) $6.80 b) $7.20 c) $9.60 d) $11.30 e) $14.80 21) If "basis points" are defined so that 1 percent is equal to 100 basis points, then 75.5 percent is how many basis points greater than 65.5 percent? a) .01 b) .10 c) 10 d) 100 e) 1000 22) If x + 8y = 20 and x = -3y, then y = a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 e) 8 23) If 2x + y = 10 and x = 3, what is x – y a) -3 b) -1 c) 0 d) 1 e) 3 24) If a triangle has a base B and the altitude of the triangle is twice the base, then the area of the triangle is a) .5AB b) AB c) .5AB2 d) B2 e) 2B2 25) If y/x = 1/3 and x + 2y = 10, then x is a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6 SECTION B VERBAL REASONING ( 20 QUESTIONS 30 MINUTES ) DIRECTIONS :- ENITRE SECTION B IS DIVIDED INTO THREE PASSAGES. READ EACH PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND ANSWER QUESTIONS MENTIONED BELOW. PASSAGE – I QUESTION NO 1-6 If one always ought to act so as to produce the best possible circumstances, then morality is extremely demanding. No one could plausibly claim to have met the requirements of this "simple principle." . . . It would seem strange to punish those intending to do good by sentencing them to an impossible task. Also, if the standards of right conduct are as extreme as they seem, then they will preclude the personal projects that humans find most fulfilling. From an analytic perspective, the potential extreme demands of morality are not a "problem." A theory of morality is no less valid simply because it asks great sacrifices. In fact, it is difficult to imagine what kind of constraints could be put on our ethical projects. Shouldn't we reflect on our base prejudices, and not allow them to provide boundaries for our moral reasoning? Thus, it is tempting to simply dismiss the objections to the simple principle. However, in Demands of Morality, Liam Murphy takes these objections seriously for at least two distinct reasons. First, discussion of the simple principle provides an excellent vehicle for a discussion of morality in general. Perhaps, in a way, this is Murphy's attempt at doing philosophy "from the inside out.". . . Second, Murphy's starting point tells us about the nature of his project. Murphy must take seriously the collisions between moral philosophy and our intuitive sense of right and wrong. He [must do so] because his work is best interpreted as intended to forge moral principles from our firm beliefs, and not to proscribe beliefs given a set of moral principles. [Murphy] argues from our considered judgments rather than to them. . . For example, Murphy cites our "simple but firmly held" beliefs as supporting the potency of the over-demandingness objection, and nowhere in the work can one find a source of moral values divorced from human preferences. Murphy does not tell us what set of "firm beliefs" we ought to have. Rather, he speaks to an audience of well-intentioned but unorganized moral realists, and tries to give them principles that represent their considered moral judgments. Murphy starts with this base sense of right and wrong, but recognizes that it needs to be supplemented by reason where our intuitions are confused or conflicting. Perhaps Murphy is looking for the best interpretation of our convictions, the same way certain legal scholars try to find the best interpretation of our Constitution. This approach has disadvantages. Primarily, Murphy's arguments, even if successful, do not provide the kind of motivating force for which moral philosophy has traditionally searched. His work assumes and argues in terms of an inner sense of morality, and his project seeks to deepen that sense. Of course, it is quite possible that the moral viewpoints of humans will not converge, and some humans have no moral sense at all. Thus, it is very easy for the moral skeptic to point out a lack of justification and ignore the entire work. On the other hand, Murphy's choice of a starting point avoids many of the problems of moral philosophy. Justifying the content of moral principles and granting a motivating force to those principles is an extraordinary task. It would be unrealistic to expect all discussions of moral philosophy to derive such justifications. Projects that attempt such a derivation have value, but they are hard pressed to produce logical consequences for everyday life. In the end, Murphy's strategy may have more practical effect than its first-principle counterparts, which do not seem any more likely to convince those that would reject Murphy's premises. 1) The author suggests that the application of Murphy's philosophy to the situations of two different groups: a) would help to solve the problems of one group but not of the other. b) could result in the derivation of two radically different moral principles. c) would be contingent on the two groups sharing the same fundamental beliefs. d) could reconcile any differences between the two groups. 2) Suppose an individual who firmly believes in keeping promises has promised to return a weapon to a person she knows to be extremely dangerous. According to Murphy, which of the following, if true, would WEAKEN the notion that she should return the weapon? a) She also firmly believes that it is morally wrong to assist in any way in a potentially violent act. b) She believes herself to be well-intentioned in matters of right and wrong. c) The belief that one should keep promises is shared by most members of her community. d) She derived her moral beliefs from first-principle ethical philosophy. 3) The passage implies that a moral principle derived from applying Murphy's philosophy to a particular group would be applicable to another group if: a) the first group recommended the principle to the second group. b) the moral viewpoints of the two groups do not converge. c) the members of the second group have no firmly held beliefs. d) the second group shares the same fundamental beliefs as the first group. 4) According to the passage, the existence of individuals who entirely lack a moral sense: a) confirms the notion that moral principles should be derived from the considered judgments of individuals. b) suggests a potential disadvantage of Murphy's philosophical approach. c) supports Murphy's belief that reason is necessary in cases in which intuitions are conflicting or confused. d) proves that first-principle strategies of ethical theorizing will have no more influence over the behavior of individuals than will Murphy's philosophical approach. 5) Which of the following can be inferred about "doing philosophy from the inside out?" a) Murphy was the first philosopher to employ such an approach. b) It allows no place for rational argument in the formation of ethical principles. c) It is fundamentally different from the practice of first-principle philosophy. d) It is designed to dismiss objections to the "simple principle." 6) A school board is debating whether or not to institute a dress code for the school's students. According to Murphy, the best way to come to an ethical decision would be to: a) consult the fundamental beliefs of the board members. b) analyze the results of dress codes instituted at other schools. c) survey the students as to whether or not they would prefer a dress code. d) determine whether or note a dress code has ever been instituted in the school's history. PASSAGE – II QUESTION NO 7-13 Agonistic behavior, or aggression, is exhibited by most of the more than three million species of animals on this planet. Animal behaviorists still disagree on a comprehensive definition of the term, hut aggressive behavior can be loosely described as any action that harms an adversary or compels it to retreat. Aggression may serve many purposes, such as Food gathering, establishing territory, and enforcing social hierarchy. In a general Darwinian sense, however, the purpose of aggressive behavior is to increase the individual animal’s—and thus, the species’—chance of survival. Aggressive behavior may he directed at animals of other species, or it may be conspecific—that is, directed at members of an animal’s own species. One of the most common examples of conspecific aggression occurs in the establishment and maintenance of social hierarchies. In a hierarchy, social dominance is usually established according to physical superiority; the classic example is that of a pecking order among domestic fowl. The dominance hierarchy may be viewed as a means of social control that reduces the incidence of attack within a group. Once established, the hierarchy is rarely threatened by disputes because the inferior animal immediately submits when confronted by a superior. Two basic types of aggressive behavior are common to most species: attack and defensive threat. Each type involves a particular pattern of physiological and behavioral responses, which tends not to vary regardless of the stimulus that provokes it. For example, the pattern of attack behavior in cats involves a series of movements, such as stalking, biting, seizing with the forepaws and scratching with tile hind legs, that changes very little regardless of the stimulus—that is, regardless of who or what the cat is attacking. The cat’s defensive threat response offers another set of closely linked physiological and behavioral patterns. The cardiovascular system begins to pump blood at a faster rate, in preparation for sudden physical activity. The eves narrow and the ears flatten against the side of the cat’s head for protection, and other vulnerable areas of the body such as the stomach and throat are similarly contracted. Growling or hissing noises and erect fur also signal defensive threat. As with the attack response, this pattern of responses is generated with little variation regardless of the nature of the stimulus. Are these aggressive patterns of attack and defensive threat innate, genetically programmed, or are they learned? The answer seems to be a combination of both. A mouse is helpless at birth, but by its l2th day of life can assume a defensive threat position by backing up on its hind legs. By the time it is one month old, the mouse begins to exhibit the attack response. Nonetheless, copious evidence suggests that animals learn and practice aggressive behavior; one need look no further than the sight of a kitten playing with a ball of string. All the elements of attack—stalking, pouncing, biting, and shaking—are part of the game that prepares the kitten for more serious situations later in life. 7) The passage asserts that animal social hierarchies are generally stable because: a) the behavior responses of the group are known by all its members. b) the defensive threat posture quickly stops most conflicts. c) inferior animals usually defer to their physical superior. d) the need for mutual protection from other species inhibits conspecific aggression. 8) According to the author, what is the most significant physiological change undergone by a cat assuming the defensive threat position? a) An increase in cardiovascular activity b) A sudden narrowing of the eyes c) A contraction of the abdominal muscles d) The author does not say which change is most significant 9) Based on the information in the passage about agonistic behavior, it is reasonable to conclude that: I. the purpose of agonistic behavior is to help ensure the survival of the species. II. agonistic behavior is both innate and learned. III. conspecific aggression is more frequent than i aggression. a) I only b) II only c) I and II only d) I,II and III only 10) Which of the following would be most in accord with the information presented in the passage? a) The aggressive behavior of sharks is closely inked to their need to remain in constant motion. b) fine inability of newborn mice to exhibit the attack response proves that aggressive behavior must be learned. c) Most animal species that do riot exhibit aggressive behavior are prevented from doing so by environmental factors. d) Members of a certain species of hawk use the same method to prey on both squirrels and gophers. 11) The author suggests that the question of whether agonistic behavior is genetically programmed or learned: a) still generates considerable controversy among animal behaviorists. b) was first investigated through experiments on mice. c) is outdated since most scientists now believe the genetic element to be most important. d) has been the subject of extensive clinical study. 12) Which of the following topics related to agonistic behavior is NOT explicitly addressed in the passage? a) The physiological changes that accompany attack behavior in cats b) The evolutionary purpose of aggression c) Conspecific aggression that occurs in dominance hierarchies d) The relationship between play and aggression 13) The author of this passage is primarily concerned with: a) analyzing the differences between attack behavior and defensive threat behavior. b) introducing a subject currently debated among animal behaviorists. c) providing a general overview of aggressive behavior in animals. d) illustrating various manifestations of agonistic behavior among mammals. PASSAGE – III QUESTION NO 14 - 20 The rich analysts of Fernand Braudel arid his fellow Annales historians have made significant contributions to historical theory and research. In a departure from traditional historical approaches, the Annales historians assume (as do Marxists) that history cannot be limited to a simple recounting of conscious human actions, but must be understood in the context of forces and material conditions that underlie human behavior. Braudel was the first Annales historian to gain widespread support for the idea that history should synthesize data from various social sciences, especially economics, in order to provide a broader view of human societies over time (although Febvre and Bloch, founders of the Annales school, had originated this approach). Braudel conceived of history as the dynamic interaction of three temporalities. The first of these, the evenmentielle, involved short-lived dramatic events such as battles, revolutions, and the actions of great men, which had preoccupied traditional historians like Carlyle. Conjonctures was Braudel’s term for larger cyclical processes that might last up to half a century. The longue duree, a historical wave of great length, was for Braudel the most fascinating of the three temporalities. Here he focused on those aspects of everyday life that might remain relatively unchanged for centuries. What people ate, what they wore, their means and routes of travel—for Braudel these things create “structures’ that define the limits of potential social change for hundreds of years at a time. Braudel’s concept of the longue duree extended the perspective of historical space as well as time. Until the Annales school, historians had taken the juridical political unit—the nation-state, duchy, or whatever—as their starting point. Yet, when such enormous timespans are considered, geographical features may well have more significance for human populations than national borders, In his doctoral thesis, a seminal work on the Mediterranean during the reign of Philip II, Braudel treated the geohistory of the entire region as a “structure” that had exerted myriad influences on human lifeways since the first settlements on the shores of the Mediterranean Sea. And so the reader is given such arcane information as the list of products that came to Spanish shores from North Africa, the seasonal routes followed by Mediterranean sheep and their shepherds, and the cities where the best ship timber could be bought. Braudel has been faulted for the imprecision of his approach. With his Rabelaisian delight in concrete detail, Braudel vastly extended the realm of relevant phenomena but this very achievement made it difficult to delimit the boundaries of observation, a task necessary to beginning any social investigation. Further, Braudel and other Annales historians minimize the differences among the social sciences. Nevertheless, the many similarly designed studies aimed at both professional and popular audiences indicate that Braudel asked significant questions that traditional historians had overlooked. 14) The primary purpose of the passage is to: a) show how Braudel’s work changed the conception of Mediterranean life held by previous historians. b) evaluate Braudel’s criticisms of traditional and Marxist historiography. c) contrast the perspective of the longue duree with the actions of major historical figures d) outline some of Braudel’s influential conceptions and distinguish them from conventional approaches. 15) The author refers to the work of Febvre and Bloch in order to: a) illustrate the limitations of the Annale tradition of historical interpretation. b) suggest the relevance of economics to historical investigation. c) debate the need for combining various sociological approaches. d) show that previous Annales historians anticipated Braudel’s focus on economics. 16) According to the passage, all of the following are aspects of Braudel’s approach to history EXCEPT that he: a) attempted to draw on various social sciences. b) studied social and economic activities that occurred across national boundaries. c) pointed out the link between increased economic activity and the rise of nationalism. d) examined seemingly unexciting aspects of everyday life. 17) In the third paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with discussing: a) Braudel’s fascination with obscure facts. b) Braudel’s depiction of the role of geography in human history. c) the geography of the Mediterranean region. d) the irrelevance of national borders. 18) The passage suggests that, compared with traditional historians, Annales/i> historians are: a) more interested in other social sciences than in history. b) critical of the achievements of famous historical figures. c) skeptical of the validity of most economic research. d) more interested in the underlying context of human behavior. 19) Which of the Following statements would be most likely to follow the last sentence of the passage? a) Few such studies however, have been written by trained economists. b) It is time, perhaps, for a revival of the Carlylean emphasis on personalities. c) Many historians believe that Braudel’s conception of three distinct “temporalities” is an oversimplification. d) Such diverse works as Gascon’s study of Lyon and Barbara Tuchman’s A Distant Mirror testify to his relevance. 20) The author is critical of Braudel’s perspective for which of the Following reasons a) It seeks structures that underlie all forms of social activity. b) It assumes a greater similarity among the social sciences than actually exists. c) It fails to consider the relationship between short-term events and long-term social activity. d) It rigidly defines boundaries for social analysis. SECTION C ANALYTICAL REASONING ( 20 QUESTIONS 30 MINUTES ) 1) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Eugene finishes two places ahead of Chris in the first race, all of the following will be true EXCEPT: a) Bob finishes ahead of Don. b) Chris finishes two places ahead of Alan. c) Don finishes fourth. d) Bob finishes immediately behind Eugene. e) Chris finishes ahead of Bob. 2) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Don finishes third in the third race, which of the following must be true of that race? a) Alan finishes first. b) Eugene finishes first. c) Bob finishes second. d) Chris finishes second. e) Alan finishes fifth. 3) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Eugene's total for the six races is 36 points, which of the following must be true? a) Bob's total is more than 36 points. b) Chris's total is more than 36 points. c) Alan's total is 36 points. d) Don's total is less than 36 points. e) Don's total is 36 points. 4) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Alan finishes first only once, and Don finishes second exactly twice, the lowest total number of points that Bob can earn in the race is: a) 32 points. b) 38 points. c) 40 points. d) 44 points. e) 48 points. 5) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Alan finishes first in four races, which of the following could earn a total of fewer than 26 points in the six races? a) Bob only. b) Chris only. c) Don only. d) Eugene of Chris. e) Don or Chris. 6) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Frank enters the third race and finishes behind Chris and Don, which of the following must be true of that race? a) Eugene finishes first. b) Alan finishes sixth. c) Don finishes second. d) Frank finishes fifth. e) Chris finishes third. 7) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane wears black shoes she will not wear: a) red stockings. b) a blue skirt. c) a white blouse. d) blue stockings. e) a sky blue blouse. 8) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane is color blind and is unable to determine what outfits went well together, how many possible clothing combinations could she have? a) 24 b) 32 c) 36 d) 44 e) 48 9) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane wears a brown skirt and a white blouse, she could: a) not wear blue stockings. b) not wear brown shoes. c) not wear black shoes. d) wear blue stockings. e) wear red stockings. 10) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. Jane buys a gray scarf. If she wears the new scarf, then she could: a) not wear blue stockings. b) not wear brown stockings. c) not wear black shoes. d) wear a white blouse. e) wear black stockings. 11) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. Jane will never wear: a) blue and red together. b) white and red together. c) gray and blue together. d) white and black together. e) white and red together. 12) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and one is a general practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with one person on each side. 1) Barry is across from the dentist. 2) David is not across from the surgeon. 3) The optometrist is on Ann's immediate left. 4) Cathy is the general practitioner. 5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each other. 6) The general practitioner is not on Cathy's immediate left. 7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist. Which of the following must be true? a) Barry is the dentist. b) The surgeon and general practitioner are women. c) The dentist is across from the surgeon. d) David is the surgeon. e) Cathy is across from Ann. 13) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and one is a general practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with one person on each side. 1) Barry is across from the dentist. 2) David is not across from the surgeon. 3) The optometrist is on Ann's immediate left. 4) Cathy is the general practitioner. 5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each other. 6) The general practitioner is not on Cathy's immediate left. 7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist. If both women leave the table, the a) optometrist and dentist remain. b) surgeon and optometrist remain. c) surgeon and general practitioner remain. d) general practitioner and dentist remain. e) general practitioner and optometrist remain. 14) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which of the following could be false? a) If U works on Saturday, then V works on Sunday. b) If X works on Saturday, then W works on Sunday. c) T can work either day. d) If W works on Saturday and Y works on Sunday, then X works on Sunday. e) If U works on Sunday, then X works on Saturday. 15) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following is an acceptable group of employees that could work on Saturday? a) ZWYST b) UVWYZS c) VWXST d) UZST e) VWZS 16) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. What is the greatest number of employees that can work on Saturday? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6 17) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. If W works on Sunday, then which one of the following must be true? a) X works on Saturday b) Y works on Saturday c) T works on Saturday d) Z works on Saturday e) U works on Saturday 18) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following must be true? a) T always works on the same day as Y. b) S never works on the same day as U. c) Z never works on the same day as X. d) If W works on Sunday, then Y always works on Saturday. e) Only two tellers work on Saturday. 19) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the employees who have the possibility of working on Sunday? a) UWYZ b) UWYS c) UVWXT d) UVWXYT e) UVWXYTS 20) In the earliest stages of common law, a party could have their case heard by a judge only upon the payment of a fee to the court, and then only if the case fit into one of the forms for which there existed a writ. At first the number of such formalized cases of action was very small, but judges invented new forms which brought more cases and greater revenues. Which of the following conclusions is most strongly suggested by the paragraph above? a) In most early cases, the plaintiff rather than the defendant prevailed. b) One of the motivating forces for the early expansion in judicial power was economic considerations. c) The first common law decisions were inconsistent with one another and did not form a coherent body of law. d) Early judges often decided cases in an arbitrary and haphazard manner. e) The judiciary at first had greater power than either the legislature or the executive.
11) In 1991, was the number of people in City A three times greater then the number of people in City B? 1) In 1991, there were approximately 1.1 million more people in City A than in City B. 2) In 1991, the 300,000 Catholics in City A made up 20% of its population, and the 141,000 Buddhists in City B made up 30% of its population. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 12) (165)2 - (164)2 = a) 1 b) 100 c) 229 d) 329 e) 349 13) If the ticket sales s for a company increases 25% from standard sales to 60 tickets sold, then 60 - s =: a) 7 b) 12 c) 18 d) 30 e) 48 14) All of the tickets for 2 music concerts, X and Y, were either purchased or given away, and the ratio of X tickets to Y was 2 to 1. Of the total number of X tickets and Y tickets, what percentage was purchased? 1) The total number of X tickets and Y tickets, is 240. 2) Of the X tickets, exactly 60% were purchased, and of the Y tickets, exactly 80% were purchased. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 15) If a and b are positive integers, is a + 4b odd? 1) b is even. 2) a is odd. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 16) If q is a multiple of prime numbers, is q a multiple of r? 1) r < 4. 2) q = 18. a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked. e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed. 17) How many integers between 100 and 150, inclusive, cannot be evenly divided by 3 nor 5? a) 35 b) 27 c) 25 d) 26 e) 28 18) Susan wants to put up fencing around three sides of her rectangular yard and leave a side of 20 feet unfenced. If the yard has an area of 680 square feet, how many feet of fencing does she need? a) 38 b) 44 c) 72 d) 88 e) 97 19) Which of the following equations has a root in common with x2 - 6x + 5 = 0? a) x2 + 1 = 0 b) x2 - x - 2 = 0 c) 2x2 - 2 = 0 d) x2 - 2x - 3 = 0 e) x2 - 10x - 5 = 0 20) A computer store regularly sells all stock at a discount of 20 percent to 40 percent. If an additional 25 percent were deducted from the discount price during a special sale, what would be the lowest possible price of a part costing $16 before any discount? a) $6.80 b) $7.20 c) $9.60 d) $11.30 e) $14.80 21) If "basis points" are defined so that 1 percent is equal to 100 basis points, then 75.5 percent is how many basis points greater than 65.5 percent? a) .01 b) .10 c) 10 d) 100 e) 1000 22) If x + 8y = 20 and x = -3y, then y = a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 e) 8 23) If 2x + y = 10 and x = 3, what is x – y a) -3 b) -1 c) 0 d) 1 e) 3 24) If a triangle has a base B and the altitude of the triangle is twice the base, then the area of the triangle is a) .5AB b) AB c) .5AB2 d) B2 e) 2B2 25) If y/x = 1/3 and x + 2y = 10, then x is a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6 SECTION B VERBAL REASONING ( 20 QUESTIONS 30 MINUTES ) DIRECTIONS :- ENITRE SECTION B IS DIVIDED INTO THREE PASSAGES. READ EACH PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND ANSWER QUESTIONS MENTIONED BELOW. PASSAGE – I QUESTION NO 1-6 If one always ought to act so as to produce the best possible circumstances, then morality is extremely demanding. No one could plausibly claim to have met the requirements of this "simple principle." . . . It would seem strange to punish those intending to do good by sentencing them to an impossible task. Also, if the standards of right conduct are as extreme as they seem, then they will preclude the personal projects that humans find most fulfilling. From an analytic perspective, the potential extreme demands of morality are not a "problem." A theory of morality is no less valid simply because it asks great sacrifices. In fact, it is difficult to imagine what kind of constraints could be put on our ethical projects. Shouldn't we reflect on our base prejudices, and not allow them to provide boundaries for our moral reasoning? Thus, it is tempting to simply dismiss the objections to the simple principle. However, in Demands of Morality, Liam Murphy takes these objections seriously for at least two distinct reasons. First, discussion of the simple principle provides an excellent vehicle for a discussion of morality in general. Perhaps, in a way, this is Murphy's attempt at doing philosophy "from the inside out.". . . Second, Murphy's starting point tells us about the nature of his project. Murphy must take seriously the collisions between moral philosophy and our intuitive sense of right and wrong. He [must do so] because his work is best interpreted as intended to forge moral principles from our firm beliefs, and not to proscribe beliefs given a set of moral principles. [Murphy] argues from our considered judgments rather than to them. . . For example, Murphy cites our "simple but firmly held" beliefs as supporting the potency of the over-demandingness objection, and nowhere in the work can one find a source of moral values divorced from human preferences. Murphy does not tell us what set of "firm beliefs" we ought to have. Rather, he speaks to an audience of well-intentioned but unorganized moral realists, and tries to give them principles that represent their considered moral judgments. Murphy starts with this base sense of right and wrong, but recognizes that it needs to be supplemented by reason where our intuitions are confused or conflicting. Perhaps Murphy is looking for the best interpretation of our convictions, the same way certain legal scholars try to find the best interpretation of our Constitution. This approach has disadvantages. Primarily, Murphy's arguments, even if successful, do not provide the kind of motivating force for which moral philosophy has traditionally searched. His work assumes and argues in terms of an inner sense of morality, and his project seeks to deepen that sense. Of course, it is quite possible that the moral viewpoints of humans will not converge, and some humans have no moral sense at all. Thus, it is very easy for the moral skeptic to point out a lack of justification and ignore the entire work. On the other hand, Murphy's choice of a starting point avoids many of the problems of moral philosophy. Justifying the content of moral principles and granting a motivating force to those principles is an extraordinary task. It would be unrealistic to expect all discussions of moral philosophy to derive such justifications. Projects that attempt such a derivation have value, but they are hard pressed to produce logical consequences for everyday life. In the end, Murphy's strategy may have more practical effect than its first-principle counterparts, which do not seem any more likely to convince those that would reject Murphy's premises. 1) The author suggests that the application of Murphy's philosophy to the situations of two different groups: a) would help to solve the problems of one group but not of the other. b) could result in the derivation of two radically different moral principles. c) would be contingent on the two groups sharing the same fundamental beliefs. d) could reconcile any differences between the two groups. 2) Suppose an individual who firmly believes in keeping promises has promised to return a weapon to a person she knows to be extremely dangerous. According to Murphy, which of the following, if true, would WEAKEN the notion that she should return the weapon? a) She also firmly believes that it is morally wrong to assist in any way in a potentially violent act. b) She believes herself to be well-intentioned in matters of right and wrong. c) The belief that one should keep promises is shared by most members of her community. d) She derived her moral beliefs from first-principle ethical philosophy. 3) The passage implies that a moral principle derived from applying Murphy's philosophy to a particular group would be applicable to another group if: a) the first group recommended the principle to the second group. b) the moral viewpoints of the two groups do not converge. c) the members of the second group have no firmly held beliefs. d) the second group shares the same fundamental beliefs as the first group. 4) According to the passage, the existence of individuals who entirely lack a moral sense: a) confirms the notion that moral principles should be derived from the considered judgments of individuals. b) suggests a potential disadvantage of Murphy's philosophical approach. c) supports Murphy's belief that reason is necessary in cases in which intuitions are conflicting or confused. d) proves that first-principle strategies of ethical theorizing will have no more influence over the behavior of individuals than will Murphy's philosophical approach. 5) Which of the following can be inferred about "doing philosophy from the inside out?" a) Murphy was the first philosopher to employ such an approach. b) It allows no place for rational argument in the formation of ethical principles. c) It is fundamentally different from the practice of first-principle philosophy. d) It is designed to dismiss objections to the "simple principle." 6) A school board is debating whether or not to institute a dress code for the school's students. According to Murphy, the best way to come to an ethical decision would be to: a) consult the fundamental beliefs of the board members. b) analyze the results of dress codes instituted at other schools. c) survey the students as to whether or not they would prefer a dress code. d) determine whether or note a dress code has ever been instituted in the school's history. PASSAGE – II QUESTION NO 7-13 Agonistic behavior, or aggression, is exhibited by most of the more than three million species of animals on this planet. Animal behaviorists still disagree on a comprehensive definition of the term, hut aggressive behavior can be loosely described as any action that harms an adversary or compels it to retreat. Aggression may serve many purposes, such as Food gathering, establishing territory, and enforcing social hierarchy. In a general Darwinian sense, however, the purpose of aggressive behavior is to increase the individual animal’s—and thus, the species’—chance of survival. Aggressive behavior may he directed at animals of other species, or it may be conspecific—that is, directed at members of an animal’s own species. One of the most common examples of conspecific aggression occurs in the establishment and maintenance of social hierarchies. In a hierarchy, social dominance is usually established according to physical superiority; the classic example is that of a pecking order among domestic fowl. The dominance hierarchy may be viewed as a means of social control that reduces the incidence of attack within a group. Once established, the hierarchy is rarely threatened by disputes because the inferior animal immediately submits when confronted by a superior. Two basic types of aggressive behavior are common to most species: attack and defensive threat. Each type involves a particular pattern of physiological and behavioral responses, which tends not to vary regardless of the stimulus that provokes it. For example, the pattern of attack behavior in cats involves a series of movements, such as stalking, biting, seizing with the forepaws and scratching with tile hind legs, that changes very little regardless of the stimulus—that is, regardless of who or what the cat is attacking. The cat’s defensive threat response offers another set of closely linked physiological and behavioral patterns. The cardiovascular system begins to pump blood at a faster rate, in preparation for sudden physical activity. The eves narrow and the ears flatten against the side of the cat’s head for protection, and other vulnerable areas of the body such as the stomach and throat are similarly contracted. Growling or hissing noises and erect fur also signal defensive threat. As with the attack response, this pattern of responses is generated with little variation regardless of the nature of the stimulus. Are these aggressive patterns of attack and defensive threat innate, genetically programmed, or are they learned? The answer seems to be a combination of both. A mouse is helpless at birth, but by its l2th day of life can assume a defensive threat position by backing up on its hind legs. By the time it is one month old, the mouse begins to exhibit the attack response. Nonetheless, copious evidence suggests that animals learn and practice aggressive behavior; one need look no further than the sight of a kitten playing with a ball of string. All the elements of attack—stalking, pouncing, biting, and shaking—are part of the game that prepares the kitten for more serious situations later in life. 7) The passage asserts that animal social hierarchies are generally stable because: a) the behavior responses of the group are known by all its members. b) the defensive threat posture quickly stops most conflicts. c) inferior animals usually defer to their physical superior. d) the need for mutual protection from other species inhibits conspecific aggression. 8) According to the author, what is the most significant physiological change undergone by a cat assuming the defensive threat position? a) An increase in cardiovascular activity b) A sudden narrowing of the eyes c) A contraction of the abdominal muscles d) The author does not say which change is most significant 9) Based on the information in the passage about agonistic behavior, it is reasonable to conclude that: I. the purpose of agonistic behavior is to help ensure the survival of the species. II. agonistic behavior is both innate and learned. III. conspecific aggression is more frequent than i aggression. a) I only b) II only c) I and II only d) I,II and III only 10) Which of the following would be most in accord with the information presented in the passage? a) The aggressive behavior of sharks is closely inked to their need to remain in constant motion. b) fine inability of newborn mice to exhibit the attack response proves that aggressive behavior must be learned. c) Most animal species that do riot exhibit aggressive behavior are prevented from doing so by environmental factors. d) Members of a certain species of hawk use the same method to prey on both squirrels and gophers. 11) The author suggests that the question of whether agonistic behavior is genetically programmed or learned: a) still generates considerable controversy among animal behaviorists. b) was first investigated through experiments on mice. c) is outdated since most scientists now believe the genetic element to be most important. d) has been the subject of extensive clinical study. 12) Which of the following topics related to agonistic behavior is NOT explicitly addressed in the passage? a) The physiological changes that accompany attack behavior in cats b) The evolutionary purpose of aggression c) Conspecific aggression that occurs in dominance hierarchies d) The relationship between play and aggression 13) The author of this passage is primarily concerned with: a) analyzing the differences between attack behavior and defensive threat behavior. b) introducing a subject currently debated among animal behaviorists. c) providing a general overview of aggressive behavior in animals. d) illustrating various manifestations of agonistic behavior among mammals. PASSAGE – III QUESTION NO 14 - 20 The rich analysts of Fernand Braudel arid his fellow Annales historians have made significant contributions to historical theory and research. In a departure from traditional historical approaches, the Annales historians assume (as do Marxists) that history cannot be limited to a simple recounting of conscious human actions, but must be understood in the context of forces and material conditions that underlie human behavior. Braudel was the first Annales historian to gain widespread support for the idea that history should synthesize data from various social sciences, especially economics, in order to provide a broader view of human societies over time (although Febvre and Bloch, founders of the Annales school, had originated this approach). Braudel conceived of history as the dynamic interaction of three temporalities. The first of these, the evenmentielle, involved short-lived dramatic events such as battles, revolutions, and the actions of great men, which had preoccupied traditional historians like Carlyle. Conjonctures was Braudel’s term for larger cyclical processes that might last up to half a century. The longue duree, a historical wave of great length, was for Braudel the most fascinating of the three temporalities. Here he focused on those aspects of everyday life that might remain relatively unchanged for centuries. What people ate, what they wore, their means and routes of travel—for Braudel these things create “structures’ that define the limits of potential social change for hundreds of years at a time. Braudel’s concept of the longue duree extended the perspective of historical space as well as time. Until the Annales school, historians had taken the juridical political unit—the nation-state, duchy, or whatever—as their starting point. Yet, when such enormous timespans are considered, geographical features may well have more significance for human populations than national borders, In his doctoral thesis, a seminal work on the Mediterranean during the reign of Philip II, Braudel treated the geohistory of the entire region as a “structure” that had exerted myriad influences on human lifeways since the first settlements on the shores of the Mediterranean Sea. And so the reader is given such arcane information as the list of products that came to Spanish shores from North Africa, the seasonal routes followed by Mediterranean sheep and their shepherds, and the cities where the best ship timber could be bought. Braudel has been faulted for the imprecision of his approach. With his Rabelaisian delight in concrete detail, Braudel vastly extended the realm of relevant phenomena but this very achievement made it difficult to delimit the boundaries of observation, a task necessary to beginning any social investigation. Further, Braudel and other Annales historians minimize the differences among the social sciences. Nevertheless, the many similarly designed studies aimed at both professional and popular audiences indicate that Braudel asked significant questions that traditional historians had overlooked. 14) The primary purpose of the passage is to: a) show how Braudel’s work changed the conception of Mediterranean life held by previous historians. b) evaluate Braudel’s criticisms of traditional and Marxist historiography. c) contrast the perspective of the longue duree with the actions of major historical figures d) outline some of Braudel’s influential conceptions and distinguish them from conventional approaches. 15) The author refers to the work of Febvre and Bloch in order to: a) illustrate the limitations of the Annale tradition of historical interpretation. b) suggest the relevance of economics to historical investigation. c) debate the need for combining various sociological approaches. d) show that previous Annales historians anticipated Braudel’s focus on economics. 16) According to the passage, all of the following are aspects of Braudel’s approach to history EXCEPT that he: a) attempted to draw on various social sciences. b) studied social and economic activities that occurred across national boundaries. c) pointed out the link between increased economic activity and the rise of nationalism. d) examined seemingly unexciting aspects of everyday life. 17) In the third paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with discussing: a) Braudel’s fascination with obscure facts. b) Braudel’s depiction of the role of geography in human history. c) the geography of the Mediterranean region. d) the irrelevance of national borders. 18) The passage suggests that, compared with traditional historians, Annales/i> historians are: a) more interested in other social sciences than in history. b) critical of the achievements of famous historical figures. c) skeptical of the validity of most economic research. d) more interested in the underlying context of human behavior. 19) Which of the Following statements would be most likely to follow the last sentence of the passage? a) Few such studies however, have been written by trained economists. b) It is time, perhaps, for a revival of the Carlylean emphasis on personalities. c) Many historians believe that Braudel’s conception of three distinct “temporalities” is an oversimplification. d) Such diverse works as Gascon’s study of Lyon and Barbara Tuchman’s A Distant Mirror testify to his relevance. 20) The author is critical of Braudel’s perspective for which of the Following reasons a) It seeks structures that underlie all forms of social activity. b) It assumes a greater similarity among the social sciences than actually exists. c) It fails to consider the relationship between short-term events and long-term social activity. d) It rigidly defines boundaries for social analysis. SECTION C ANALYTICAL REASONING ( 20 QUESTIONS 30 MINUTES ) 1) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Eugene finishes two places ahead of Chris in the first race, all of the following will be true EXCEPT: a) Bob finishes ahead of Don. b) Chris finishes two places ahead of Alan. c) Don finishes fourth. d) Bob finishes immediately behind Eugene. e) Chris finishes ahead of Bob. 2) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Don finishes third in the third race, which of the following must be true of that race? a) Alan finishes first. b) Eugene finishes first. c) Bob finishes second. d) Chris finishes second. e) Alan finishes fifth. 3) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Eugene's total for the six races is 36 points, which of the following must be true? a) Bob's total is more than 36 points. b) Chris's total is more than 36 points. c) Alan's total is 36 points. d) Don's total is less than 36 points. e) Don's total is 36 points. 4) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Alan finishes first only once, and Don finishes second exactly twice, the lowest total number of points that Bob can earn in the race is: a) 32 points. b) 38 points. c) 40 points. d) 44 points. e) 48 points. 5) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Alan finishes first in four races, which of the following could earn a total of fewer than 26 points in the six races? a) Bob only. b) Chris only. c) Don only. d) Eugene of Chris. e) Don or Chris. 6) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Frank enters the third race and finishes behind Chris and Don, which of the following must be true of that race? a) Eugene finishes first. b) Alan finishes sixth. c) Don finishes second. d) Frank finishes fifth. e) Chris finishes third. 7) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane wears black shoes she will not wear: a) red stockings. b) a blue skirt. c) a white blouse. d) blue stockings. e) a sky blue blouse. 8) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane is color blind and is unable to determine what outfits went well together, how many possible clothing combinations could she have? a) 24 b) 32 c) 36 d) 44 e) 48 9) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. If Jane wears a brown skirt and a white blouse, she could: a) not wear blue stockings. b) not wear brown shoes. c) not wear black shoes. d) wear blue stockings. e) wear red stockings. 10) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. Jane buys a gray scarf. If she wears the new scarf, then she could: a) not wear blue stockings. b) not wear brown stockings. c) not wear black shoes. d) wear a white blouse. e) wear black stockings. 11) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this. She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown. The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings. Gray does not go well with brown. Black does not go well with brown. Jane will never wear: a) blue and red together. b) white and red together. c) gray and blue together. d) white and black together. e) white and red together. 12) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and one is a general practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with one person on each side. 1) Barry is across from the dentist. 2) David is not across from the surgeon. 3) The optometrist is on Ann's immediate left. 4) Cathy is the general practitioner. 5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each other. 6) The general practitioner is not on Cathy's immediate left. 7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist. Which of the following must be true? a) Barry is the dentist. b) The surgeon and general practitioner are women. c) The dentist is across from the surgeon. d) David is the surgeon. e) Cathy is across from Ann. 13) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and one is a general practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with one person on each side. 1) Barry is across from the dentist. 2) David is not across from the surgeon. 3) The optometrist is on Ann's immediate left. 4) Cathy is the general practitioner. 5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each other. 6) The general practitioner is not on Cathy's immediate left. 7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist. If both women leave the table, the a) optometrist and dentist remain. b) surgeon and optometrist remain. c) surgeon and general practitioner remain. d) general practitioner and dentist remain. e) general practitioner and optometrist remain. 14) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which of the following could be false? a) If U works on Saturday, then V works on Sunday. b) If X works on Saturday, then W works on Sunday. c) T can work either day. d) If W works on Saturday and Y works on Sunday, then X works on Sunday. e) If U works on Sunday, then X works on Saturday. 15) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following is an acceptable group of employees that could work on Saturday? a) ZWYST b) UVWYZS c) VWXST d) UZST e) VWZS 16) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. What is the greatest number of employees that can work on Saturday? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6 17) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. If W works on Sunday, then which one of the following must be true? a) X works on Saturday b) Y works on Saturday c) T works on Saturday d) Z works on Saturday e) U works on Saturday 18) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following must be true? a) T always works on the same day as Y. b) S never works on the same day as U. c) Z never works on the same day as X. d) If W works on Sunday, then Y always works on Saturday. e) Only two tellers work on Saturday. 19) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday. Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the employees who have the possibility of working on Sunday? a) UWYZ b) UWYS c) UVWXT d) UVWXYT e) UVWXYTS 20) In the earliest stages of common law, a party could have their case heard by a judge only upon the payment of a fee to the court, and then only if the case fit into one of the forms for which there existed a writ. At first the number of such formalized cases of action was very small, but judges invented new forms which brought more cases and greater revenues. Which of the following conclusions is most strongly suggested by the paragraph above? a) In most early cases, the plaintiff rather than the defendant prevailed. b) One of the motivating forces for the early expansion in judicial power was economic considerations. c) The first common law decisions were inconsistent with one another and did not form a coherent body of law. d) Early judges often decided cases in an arbitrary and haphazard manner. e) The judiciary at first had greater power than either the legislature or the executive. 6) A store owner decided to raise the price of a particular item by exactly 10%. Of the following which is NOT the new price? a) $1.10 b) $8.80 c) $11.00 d) $57.30 e) $78.10 7) The price of a candy bar is $1.00. The price of a ten pack of the same candy bar is $7.40. The ten pack of candy bars is what percentage cheaper then purchasing ten candy bars individually? a) 18% b) 26% c) 32% d) 48% e) The prices are same
VISUAL BASIC QUESTIONS Does VB/Win make standalone .EXE files? What is the current version of Visual Basic for Windows? [++] Where can I get updated VB and other Microsoft files? Where can I get good up-to-date information about VB? [++] Are there any examples of commercial applications built using Visual Basic? What's the difference between MODAL and MODELESS forms? [++] When/Why should I use Option Explicit? Why does everybody say I should save in TEXT not BINARY? Is the Variant type slower than using other variable types? How do I make a text box not beep but do something else when I hit the Enter key? How do I implement an incremental search in list/dir/combo/file boxes? How do I get the Tab key to be treated like a normal character? How do I make an animated icon for my program? What is passing by reference? I get a "file not found" error on the IIF function when I distribute by program. Why? Is there any way to pass a variable to a form apart from using global variables? How should dates be implemented so they work with other language and country formats? Can a VB application be an OLE server? How do I dial a phone number without using the MSCOMM VBX? I have [several] megabytes of memory. Why do I get an "out of memory" error? [++] How do I mimic a toggle button? [++] How do I get my application on top? Is there a way to break long lines in VB code? How do I remove/change the picture property of a control at design time? Is a [foo] VBX/DLL available as shareware/freeware? How do I make my applications screen-resolution independent? How do I do Peek and Poke and other low-level stuff? [++] Why doesn't "my string" & Chr$(13) do what I want? How do I prevent multiple instances of my program? How do I implement an accelerator key for a text box? How do I force a file dialogue box to reread the currect disk? How do I get the number of free bytes on a disk? [++] Data Control missing from toolbox when I use VB under NT 3.5. Why? How do I tell when an application executed using the SHELL command is finished? How do I access C style strings? How can I change the printer Windows uses in code without using the print common dialog? How can I change orientation? How do I speed up control property access? How much gain in performance will I get if I write my number crunching routines in C instead of Visual Basic? How do you make a TEXTBOX read only? Or, how do I prevent the user from changing the text in a TEXTBOX? How can I create a VBX? How do you change the system menu (on the Control-Menu Box)? How do I play MID, WAV or other multimedia files? How can I call a 'hidden' DOS program from VB? How do I do drag & drop between applications? How do I use GetPrivateProfileString to read from INI files? How do I implement Undo? How do I create a window with a small title bar as in a floating toolbar? What is Pseudocode? Does VB support pointers to functions? How do I program the Novell NetWare API from VB? How do you change the icon and otherwise manipulate the DOS box? How do I make the mouse cursor invisible/visible? How do I create controls dynamically (at run-time)? How do I set the Windows wallpaper at runtime? How do I call help files from a VB program? [**] What is the Windows API? How do I call a DLL? What about DLL calls that require callbacks? Why can't I use an index with my VB accessed database? Is the Access Engine and Visual Basic Pro good enough for database work? How do you avoid the "Invalid use of null" error when reading null values from a database? What is "NULL"? How can I access a record by record number? How about Access 2.0 compatibility? How come I get a "No Current Record" error when I use a a Data Control on an empty table? How can I speed up my VB database application? How do I get a bitmap picture in a field in an Access database? What is "Reserved Error -1209"? I'm getting error message "Reserved Error [-nnnn] ("There is no message for this error")" from Jet Engine 2.0.Why? Why do I get "object not an array" when I try reference the fields of a global object variable which I have set to a table? Visual Basic Questions 1. Which controls can not be placed in MDI ? 2. List out controls which does not have events 3. Which property of textbox cannot be changed at runtime. What is the max size of textbox? 4. How many system controls are available 5. ___,_____ and ____ container objects. 6. ___ Property is to compress a image in image control. 7. ___,___ and __ are difference between image and picture controls. 8. To.set the command button for ESC ___ Property has to be changed. 9. Is it possible to set a shortcut key for label. 10. What is the default property of datacontrol. 11. ___,__,___ are the type of combo box? 12. __ no of controls in form. 13. OLE is used for _______ 14. What is the need of tabindex property is label control. 15. ___ is the control used to call a windows application. 16. Clear property is available in ____,___ control. 17. ___ Property is used to count no. of items in a combobox. 18. ___ is a property to resize a label control according to your caption. 19. Which controls have refresh method. 20. ___ property is used to change to ___ value to access a identity column'in datacontrols. 21. _____ is the property to ___,____,____ are valid for recordsource property of dat control. 22. To find the current recordposition in data control. 23. Timer control contains ________ no. of events. 24. ____ property is used to lock a textbox to enter a datas. 25. What is the need of zorder method? 26. ____ is the difference between Listindex and Tab index. 27. ____ property of menu cannot be set at run time. 28. Can you create a tabletype of recordset in Jet - connected ODBC dbengine. 29. Difference between listbox and combo box. 30. What are the new events in textbox that has been included in VB6.0 31. Can you create a updatecascade, Deletecascade relation in Ms- Access? If no, give on eample. 32. _____ collection in recordset used to assign a value from textbox to table columns without making abinding in datacontrol. 33. ___ argument can be used to make a menuitem into bold. 34. What is the difference between Msgbox Statement and MsgboxQ function? 35. What is.the difference between queryunload and unload in form? 36. ___,___ arguments will be used to run a executable program in shell function 37. ___ property used to add a menus at runtime. 38. What is the difference between modal and moduless window? 39. ___ VB constant make the menu item in centre. 40. ___ method used to move a recordset pointer in nth position in DAG. 41. To validate a range of values for a property whenever the property values changes,which type of property procedure you use? 42. What are 3 main differences between flexgrid control and dbgrid control? 43. What is the difference between change event in normal combobox and dbcombobox? 44. To populate a single column value which dbcontrols you to use? 45. What is ODBC? 46. PartsofODBC? 47. WhatisDSN? 48. WhatisDAO? 49. Types of cursors in DAO? 50. Types of LockEdits in DAO? 51 .Types of Recordsets. 51. Difference between Tabletype and Snapshot? 52. Draw Sequence Modal of DAO? Explain. 53. Difference between Dynaset and Snapshot? 54. Difference between Recordset and Querydef? 55. What is the use of Tabledef? 56. Default cursor Type and LockEdit type in DAO? 57. What is the default workspace? 58. Is it posible to Create Tables Through Querydef? 59. It is possible to access Text (x.txt) files? Explain. 60. What is ODBC Direct and Microsoft Jet Database Engine ? 61. Is it possible to Manipulate data through flexgrid? Explain. 62. Types of DBCombo boxes 63. What do you mean by Databound Controls? Explain. 64. What is RDO? 65. Types of cursors in RDO. 66. Types of LockEdits in RDO. 67. Types of LockEdits in RDO. 68. Types of Resultsets. 69. Difference between Recordset and Resultsets. 70. Explain Default cursor Type and LockEdits type in RDO 71. Draw Sequence Modal of RDO? Explain. 72. What is meant by Establish Connection in RDO? 74.1s it possible to Access BackEnd procedures? Explain. 73. What is OLE? Explain. 74. What is DDE? 75. Difference between Linked Object and Embedded Object? 76. Explain OLE Drag and Drop. 77. Difference between DDE and OLE. 78. What is the difference between Object and Class? 79. Give brief description about class? 80. Does VB Supports OOPS Concepts? Explain.. 81. Difference between Class Module and Standard Module? 82. Explain Get, Let, Set Properties. 83. Difference Types of Procedures in VB? 84. What is the use of NEW Keyword? Explain. 85. What is constructors and distructors. 86. Types of Modal windows in VB. 87. What is ActiveX? Explain. 88. Types of ActiveX Components in VB? 89. Difference between ActiveX Control and Standard Control. 90. Difference between ActiveX Exe and Dll. 91. What is instantiating? 92. Advantage of ActiveX Dll over Active Exe. 93. Difference Types of Instancing Property in ActiveX Dll and Exe. 94. What is ActiveX Dll and ActiveX Exe? 95. Write the steps in Creating ActiveX Dll and Active Exe? 96. Explain the differences between ActiveX Dll and ActiveX Exe? 97. How would you use ActiveX Dll and ActiveX Exe in your application? 98. How would you access objects created in ActiveX Exe and ActiveX D1T 99. What is the use of ActiveX Documents? 100. What is ActiveX Document? 101. What is the use of Visual Basic Document file? 102. What is hyperlink? 103. How would you create Visual basic Document file? 104. What is Internet Explorer and its uses? 105. How would you navigate between one document to another document 106. in Internet Explorer ? 107. How would you run your ActiveX Document Dll? 108. How would you view html code in Active Server Pages? 109. How would you cre.ate your application in DHTML? 110. What is ActiveX Control? 111. Write the Steps in Creating an ActiveX Control? 112. How would you attach an ActiveX control in Your Application? 113. How would you create properties in ActiveX Control? 114. What is the-use of property page Wizard in ActiveX Control? 115. How would you add elements in TreevieW Control. 116. What are the types of line styles available in Treeview Control? 117. What is the use of Imagelist Controls 118. How would you attach pictures in Treeview Control? 119. What are the uses of List View Control? 120. Explain the types of Views in Listview Control. 121. How would you attach pictures in column headers of List View Control? 122. How would you add column headers in listview control? 123. How would you add elements and pictures to listitems in listview control? 124. How would you activate animation control? 125. What is the use of progress Bar Control? 126. How would you find out the value property in Slider Bar Control? 127. What is the use of Data Form Wizard? 128. How would you map properties to controls by using ActiveX Control Interface Wizard? 129. How would you convert a form into document? 130. How would you Create a Query Builder and Explain its uses 131. How would you create properties by using class Builder Wizard? 132. HTML stands for What? Use of HTML ? 133. Whether HTML supports multimedia: and document links? 134. DHTML Is used for what? 135. What do you mean by HTTP? 136. What is the use of Hyperlink control for DHTML applications? 137. How can you Navigate from the DHTML application to another DHTML application? . 138. What are the Internet tools available in VB6.0? 139. Explain the usage of Web Browser Control? 140. What do you mean by ADO? 141. What is the difference Between ADO and other data access objects0 142. WhatisOLEDB? 143. What are the important components of OLEDB? 144. Through which protocol OLEDB components are interfaced? 145. It possible to call OLEDB's Features directly in VB without using any control? 146. What type of databases you can access through AD I Data Access Object? 147. How many objects resides in ADO ? 148. What is the use of Connection object? 149. What is the use of command Object? 150. Recordset object consists what? 151. What is the use of parameters collection? 152. Which type of object requires this object? 153. Is it possible to call backend procedures with ADO control? 154. Is there any Edit method in ADO Data Access method? 155. How can you check whether a record is valid record or Invalid record using ADO control or Object? 156. What do you mean by provider? 157. What type of recordsets are available in ADO? 158. Is it possible to call oracle database through ADO control or Object? 159. How many File System Controls are there ? Explain. 160. How can you filter out specific type of file using file system controls? 161. How can you get selected file from file system Control? 162. How many ways we can access file using VB? 163. Which method is preferred to save datas like database? 164. How to get freefile location in memory? 165. How to find size of the file. Which method or function is used to occomplish this? 166. Using which type we can access file line by line? 167. Which method is used to write context Into file? 168. How can you read content from file? 169. Binary Access-method isused to access file in which manner? 170. How can you check Beginning and End of the file? 171. What is the use of Scalewidth and ScaleHeight Proeperty? 172. What is the use of Active Control Property? 173. How can you save and Get data from Clipboard/ 174. What are the types of Error? 175. In which areas the Error occurs? 176. What are the tools available for Debuggiu in VB? 177. What is the use of Immediate, Local Window? 178. What is the use of debug Window? 179. How can you Implement windows functionality in VB? 180. How many types of API functions are availble in VB? 181. How can you Add API functions to your Application? 182. How to get Cursor position using API? 183. Is it possible to change menu runtime using API? If yes? Specify the function names. 184. What are the types of API Types.
what are the protecyion of transformer & generators
Does VB/Win make standalone .EXE files?
Java Questions 1. Can a main() method of class be invoked in another class? 2. What is the difference between java command line arguments and C command line arguments? 3. What is the difference between == & .equals 4. What is the difference between abstract class & Interface. 5. What is singleton class & it's implementation. 6. Use of static,final variable 7. Examples of final class 8. Difference between Event propagation & Event delegation 9. Difference between Unicast & Multicast model 10. What is a java bean 11. What is synchronized keyword used for. 12. What are the restrictions of an applet & how to make the applet access the local machines resources. 13. What is reflect package used for & the methods of it. 14. What is serialization used for 15. Can methods be overloaded based on the return types ? 16. Why do we need a finalze() method when Garbage Collection is there ? 17. Difference between AWT and Swing compenents ? 18. Is there any heavy weight component in Swings ? 19. Can the Swing application if you upload in net, be compatible with your browser? 20. What should you do get your browser compatible with swing components? 21. What are the methods in Applet ? 22. When is init(),start() called ? 23. When you navigate from one applet to another what are the methods called? 24. What is the difference between Trusted and Untrusted Applet ? 25. What is Exception ? 26. What are the ways you can handle exception ? 27. When is try,catch block used ? 28. What is finally method in Exceptions ? 29. What are the types of access modifiers ? 30. What is protected and friendly ? 31. What are the other modifiers ? 32. Is synchronised modifier ? 33. What is meant by polymorphism ? 34. What is inheritance ? 35. What is method Overloading ? What is this in OOPS ? 36. What is method Overriding ? What is it in OOPS ? 37. Does java support multi dimensional arrays ? 38. Is multiple inheritance used in Java ? 39. How do you send a message to the browser in JavaScript ? 40. Does javascript support multidimensional arrays ? 41. Is there any tool in java that can create reports ? 42. What is meant by Java ? 43. What is meant by a class ? 44. What is meant by a method ? 45. What are the OOPS concepts in Java ? 46. What is meant by encapsulation ? Explain with an example 47. What is meant by inheritance ? Explain with an example 48. What is meant by polymorphism ? Explain with an example 49. Is multiple inheritance allowed in Java ? Why ? 50. What is meant by Java interpreter ? 51. What is meant by JVM ? 52. What is a compilation unit ? 53. What is meant by identifiers ? 54. What are the different types of modifiers ? 55. What are the access modifiers in Java ? 56. What are the primitive data types in Java ? 57. What is meant by a wrapper class ? 58. What is meant by static variable and static method ? 59. What is meant by Garbage collection ? 60. What is meant by abstract class 61. What is meant by final class, methods and variables ? 62. What is meant by interface ? 63. What is meant by a resource leak ? 64. What is the difference between interface and abstract class ? 65. What is the difference between public private, protected and static 66. What is meant by method overloading ? 67. What is meant by method overriding ? 68. What is singleton class ? 69. What is the difference between an array and a vector ? 70. What is meant by constructor ? 71. What is meant by casting ? 72. What is the difference between final, finally and finalize ? 73. What is meant by packages ? 74. What are all the packages ? 75. Name 2 calsses you have used ? 76. Name 2 classes that can store arbitrary number of objects ? 77. What is the difference between java.applet.* and java.applet.Applet ? 78. What is a default package ? 79. What is meant by a super class and how can you call a super class ? 80. What is anonymous class ? 81. Name interfaces without a method ? 82. What is the use of an interface ? 83. What is a serializable interface ? 84. How to prevent field from serialization ? 85. What is meant by exception ? 86. How can you avoid the runtime exception ? 87. What is the difference between throw and throws ? 88. What is the use of finally ? 89. Can multiple catch statements be used in exceptions ? 90. Is it possible to write a try within a try statement ? 91. What is the method to find if the object exited or not ? 92. What is meant by a Thread ? 93. What is meant by multi-threading ? 94. What is the 2 way of creating a thread ? Which is the best way and why? 95. What is the method to find if a thread is active or not ? 96. What are the thread-to-thread communcation ? 97. What is the difference between sleep and suspend ? 98. Can thread become a member of another thread ? 99. What is meant by deadlock ? 100. How can you avoid a deadlock ? 101. What are the three typs of priority ? 102. What is the use of synchronizations ? 103. Garbage collector thread belongs to which priority ? 104. What is meant by time-slicing ? 105. What is the use of 'this' ? 106. How can you find the length and capacity of a string buffer ? 107. How to compare two strings ? 108. What are the interfaces defined by Java.lang ? 109. What is the purpose of run-time class and system class 110. What is meant by Stream and Types ? 111. What is the method used to clear the buffer ? 112. What is meant by Stream Tokenizer ? 113. What is serialization and de-serialisation ? 114. What is meant by Applet ? 115. How to find the host from which the Applet has originated ? 116. What is the life cycle of an Applet ? 117. How do you load an HTML page from an Applet ? 118. What is meant by Applet Stub Interface ? 119. What is meant by getCodeBase and getDocumentBase method ? 120. How can you call an applet from a HTML file 121. What is meant by Applet Flickering ? 122. What is the use of parameter tag ? 123. What is audio clip Interface and what are all the methods in it ? 124. What is the difference between getAppletInfo and getParameterInfo ? 125. How to communicate between applet and an applet ? 126. What is meant by event handling ? 127. What are all the listeners in java and explain ? 128. What is meant by an adapter class ? 129. What are the types of mouse event listeners ? 130. What are the types of methods in mouse listeners ? 131. What is the difference between panel and frame ? 132. What is the default layout of the panel and frame ? 133. What is meant by controls and types ? 134. What is the difference between a scroll bar and a scroll panel. 135. What is the difference between list and choice ? 136. How to place a component on Windows ? 137. What are the different types of Layouts ? 138. What is meant by CardLayout ? 139. What is the difference between GridLayout and GridBagLayout 140. What is the difference between menuitem and checkboxmenu item. 141. What is meant by vector class, dictionary class , hash table class,and property class ? 142. Which class has no duplicate elements ? 143. What is resource bundle ? 144. What is an enumeration class ? 145. What is meant by Swing ? 146. What is the difference between AWT and Swing ? 147. What is the difference between an applet and a Japplet 148. What are all the components used in Swing ? 149. What is meant by tab pans ? 150. What is the use of JTree ? 151. How can you add and remove nodes in Jtree. 152. What is the method to expand and collapse nodes in a Jtree 153. What is the use of JTable ? 154. What is meant by JFC ? 155. What is the class in Swing to change the appearance of the Frame in Runtime. 156. How to reduce flicking in animation ? 157. What is meant by Javabeans ? 158. What is JAR file ? 159. What is meant by manifest files ? 160. What is Introspection ? 161. What are the steps involved to create a bean ? 162. Say any two properties in Beans ? 163. What is persistence ? 164. What is the use of beaninfo ? 165. What are the interfaces you used in Beans ? 166. What are the classes you used in Beans ? 167. What is the diffrence between an Abstract class and Interface 168. What is user defined exception ? 169. What do you know about the garbate collector ? 170. What is the difference between C++ & Java ? 171. How do you communicate in between Applets & Servlets ? 172. What is the use of Servlets ? 173. In an HTML form I have a Button which makes us to open another page in 15 seconds. How will do you that ? 174. What is the difference between Process and Threads ? 175. How will you initialize an Applet ? 176. What is the order of method invocation in an Applet ? 177. When is update method called ? 178. How will you communicate between two Applets ? 179. Have you ever used HashTable and Dictionary ? 180. What are statements in JAVA ? 181. What is JAR file ? 182. What is JNI ? 183. What is the base class for all swing components ? 184. What is JFC ? 185. What is Difference between AWT and Swing ? 186. Considering notepad/IE or any other thing as process, What will Happen if you start notepad or IE 3 times? Where 3 processes are started or 3 threads are started ? 187. How does thread synchronization occurs inside a monitor ? 188. How will you call an Applet using a Java Script function ? 189. Is there any tag in HTML to upload and download files ? 190. Why do you Canvas ? 191. How can you push data from an Applet to Servlet ? 192. What are the benefits of Swing over AWT ? 193. Where the CardLayout is used ? 194. What is the Layout for ToolBar ? 195. What is the difference between Grid and GridbagLayout ? 196. How will you add panel to a Frame ? 197. What is the corresponding Layout for Card in Swing ? 198. What is light weight component ? 199. What is bean ? Where it can be used ? 200. What is difference in between Java Class and Bean ? 201. What is the mapping mechanism used by Java to identify IDL language ? 202. Diff between Application and Applet ? 203. What is serializable Interface ? 204. What is the difference between CGI and Servlet ? 205. What is the use of Interface ? 206. Why Java is not fully objective oriented ? 207. Why does not support multiple Inheritance ? 208. What it the root class for all Java classes ? 209. What is polymorphism ? 210. Suppose If we have variable ' I ' in run method, If I can create one or More thread each thread will occupy a separate copy or same variable will be shared ? 211. What is Constructor and Virtual function? Can we call Virtual 212. Funciton in a constructor ? 213. Why we use OOPS concepts? What is its advantage ? 214. What is the difference in between C++ and Java ? can u explain in detail? 215. What is the exact difference in between Unicast and Multicast object ? Where we will use ? 216. How do you sing an Applet ? 217. In a Container there are 5 components. I want to display the all the components names, how will you do that one ? 218. Why there are some null interface in java ? What does it mean ? 219. Give me some null interfaces in JAVA ? 220. Tell me the latest versions in JAVA related areas ? 221. What is meant by class loader ? How many types are there? When will we use them ? 222. What is meant by flickering ? 223. What is meant by cookies ? Explain ? 224. Problem faced in your earlier project 225. How OOPS concept is achieved in Java 226. Features for using Java 227. How does Java 2.0 differ from Java 1.0 228. Public static void main - Explain 229. What are command line arguments 230. Explain about the three-tier model 231. Difference between String & StringBuffer 232. Wrapper class. Is String a Wrapper Class 233. What are the restriction for static method Purpose of the file class 234. Default modifier in Interface 235. Difference between Interface & Abstract class 236. Can abstract be declared as Final 237. Can we declare variables inside a method as Final Variables 238. What is the package concept and use of package 239. How can a dead thread be started 240. Difference between Applet & Application 241. Life cycle of the Applet 242. Can Applet have constructors 243. Differeence between canvas class & graphics class 244. Explain about Superclass & subclass 245. What is AppletStub 246. Explain Stream Tokenizer 247. What is the difference between two types of threads 248. Checked & Unchecked exception 249. Use of throws exception 250. What is finally in exception handling Vector class 251. What will happen to the Exception object after exception handling 252. Two types of multi-tasking 253. Two ways to create the thread 254. Synchronization 255. I/O Filter 256. Can applet in different page communicate with each other 257. Why Java is not 100 % pure OOPS ? ( EcomServer ) 258. When we will use an Interface and Abstract class ? 259. How to communicate 2 threads each other ? JAVA QUESTIONS What is the difference between an Abstract class and Interface? What is user defined exception? What do you know about the garbage collector? What is the difference between java and c++? In an HTML form I have a button which makes us to open another page in 15 seconds. How will you do that? What is the difference between process and threads? What is update method called? Have you ever used HashTable and Directory? What are statements in Java? What is a JAR file? What is JNI? What is the base class for all swing components? What is JFC? What is the difference between AWT and Swing? Considering notepad/IE or any other thing as process, What will happen if you start notepad or IE 3 times ? Where three processes are started or three threads are started? How does thread synchronization occur in a monitor? Is there any tag in HTML to upload and download files? Why do you canvas? How can you know about drivers and database information ? What is serialization? Can you load the server object dynamically? If so what are the 3 major steps involved in it? What is the layout for toolbar? What is the difference between Grid and Gridbaglayout? How will you add panel to a frame? Where are the card layouts used? What is the corresponding layout for card in swing? What is light weight component? Can you run the product development on all operating systems? What are the benefits if Swing over AWT? How can two threads be made to communicate with each other? What are the files generated after using IDL to java compiler? What is the protocol used by server and client? What is the functionability stubs and skeletons? What is the mapping mechanism used by java to identify IDL language? What is serializable interface? What is the use of interface? Why is java not fully objective oriented? Why does java not support multiple inheritance? What is the root class for all java classes? What is polymorphism? Suppose if we have a variable 'I' in run method, if I can create one or more thread each thread will occupy a separate copy or same variable will be shared? What are virtual functions? Write down how will you create a Binary tree? What are the traverses in binary tree? Write a program for recursive traverse? What are session variable in servlets? What is client server computing? What is constructor and virtual function? Can we call a virtual function in a constructor? Why do we use oops concepts? What is its advantage? What is middleware? What is the functionality of web server? Why is java not 100% pure oops? When will you use an interface and abstract class? What is the exact difference in between Unicast and Multicast object? Where will it be used? What is the main functionality of the remote reference layer? How do you download stubs from Remote place? I want to store more than 10 objects in a remote server? Which methodology will follow? What is the main functionality of Prepared Statement? What is meant by Static query and Dynamic query? What are Normalization Rules? Define Normalization? What is meant by Servelet? What are the parameters of service method? What is meant by Session? Explain something about HTTP Session Class? In a container there are 5 components. I want to display all the component names, how will you do that? Why there are some null interface in JAVA? What does it mean? Give some null interface in JAVA? Tell some latest versions in JAVA related areas? What is meant by class loader? How many types are there? When will we use them? What is meant by flickering? What is meant by distributed application? Why are we using that in our application? What is the functionality of the stub? Explain about version control? Explain 2-tier and 3-tier architecture? What is the role of Web Server? How can we do validation of the fields in a project? What is meant by cookies? Explain the main features? Why java is considered as platform independent? What are the advantages of java over C++? How java can be connected to a database? What is thread? What is difference between Process and Thread? Does java support multiple inheritance? if not, what is the solution? What are abstract classes? What is an interface? What is the difference abstract class and interface? What are adapter classes? what is meant wrapper classes? What are JVM.JRE, J2EE, JNI? What are swing components? What do you mean by light weight and heavy weight components? What is meant by function overloading and function overriding? Does java support function overloading, pointers, structures, unions or linked lists? What do you mean by multithreading? What are byte codes? What are streams? What is user defined exception? In an HTML page form I have one button which makes us to open a new page in 15 seconds. How will you do that? Advanced JAVA QUESTIONS What is RMI? Explain about RMI Architecture? What are Servelets? What is the use of servlets? Explain RMI Architecture? How will you pass values from HTML page to the servlet? How do you load an image in a Servelet? What is purpose of applet programming? How will you communicate between two applets? What IS the difference between Servelets and Applets? How do you communicate in between Applets and Servlets? What is the difference between applet and application? What is the difference between CGI and Servlet? In the servlets, we are having a web page that is invoking servlets ,username and password? which is checks in database? Suppose the second page also if we want to verify the same information whether it will connect to the database or it will be used previous information? What are the difference between RMI and Servelets? How will you call an Applet using Java Script Function? How can you push data from an Applet to a Servlet? What are 4 drivers available in JDBC? At what situation are four of the drivers used? If you are truncated using JDBC , how can you that how much data is truncated? How will you perform truncation using JDBC? What is the latest version of JDBC? What are the new features added in that? What is the difference between RMI registry and OS Agent? To a server method, the client wants to send a value 20, with this value exceeds to 20 a message should be sent to the client . What will you do for achieving this? How do you invoke a Servelet? What is the difference between doPost method and doGet method? What is difference between the HTTP Servelet and Generic Servelet? Explain about their methods and parameters? Can we use threads in Servelets? Write a program on RMI and JDBC using Stored Procedure? How do you swing an applet? How will you pass parameters in RMI? Why do you serialize? In RMI ,server object is first loaded into memory and then the stub reference is sent to the client. true or false? Suppose server object not loaded into the memory and the client request for it. What will happen? What is the web server used for running the servelets? What is Servlet API used for connecting database? What is bean? Where can it be used? What is the difference between java class and bean? Can we sent objects using Sockets? What is the RMI and Socket? What is CORBA? Can you modify an object in corba? What is RMI and what are the services in RMI? What are the difference between RMI and CORBA? How will you initialize an Applet? What is the order of method invocation in an Applet? What is ODBC and JDBC? How do you connect the Database? What do you mean by Socket Programming? What is difference between Generic Servlet and HTTP Servelet? What you mean by COM and DCOM? what is e-commerce?
DATA STRUCTURE QUESTIONS What is a data structure? What does abstract data type means? Evaluate the following prefix expression " ++ 26 + - 1324" (Similar types can be asked) Convert the following infix expression to post fix notation ((a+2)*(b+4)) -1 (Similar types can be asked) How is it possible to insert different type of elements in stack? Stack can be described as a pointer. Explain. Write a Binary Search program Write programs for Bubble Sort, Quick sort Explain about the types of linked lists How would you sort a linked list? Write the programs for Linked List (Insertion and Deletion) operations What data structure would you mostly likely see in a non recursive implementation of a recursive algorithm? What do you mean by Base case, Recursive case, Binding Time, Run-Time Stack and Tail Recursion? Explain quick sort and merge sort algorithms and derive the time-constraint relation for these. Explain binary searching, Fibinocci search. What is the maximum total number of nodes in a tree that has N levels? Note that the root is level (zero) How many different binary trees and binary search trees can be made from three nodes that contain the key values 1, 2 & 3? A list is ordered from smaller to largest when a sort is called. Which sort would take the longest time to execute? A list is ordered from smaller to largest when a sort is called. Which sort would take the shortest time to execute? When will you sort an array of pointers to list elements, rather than sorting the elements themselves? The element being searched for is not found in an array of 100 elements. What is the average number of comparisons needed in a sequential search to determine that the element is not there, if the elements are completely unordered? What is the average number of comparisons needed in a sequential search to determine the position of an element in an array of 100 elements, if the elements are ordered from largest to smallest? Which sort show the best average behavior? What is the average number of comparisons in a sequential search? Which data structure is needed to convert infix notations to post fix notations? What do you mean by: • Syntax Error • Logical Error • Runtime Error How can you correct these errors? In which data structure, elements can be added or removed at either end, but not in the middle? How will inorder, preorder and postorder traversals print the elements of a tree? Parenthesis are never needed in prefix or postfix expressions. Why? Which one is faster? A binary search of an orderd set of elements in an array or a sequential search of the elements. Data Structure Questions 1. What is data structure? 2. List out the areas in which data structures are applied extensively? 3. What are the major data structures used in the following areas : RDBMS, Network data model & Hierarchical data model. 4. If you are using C language to implement the heterogeneous linked list, what pointer type will you use? 5. Minimum number of queues needed to implement the priority queue? 6. What is the data structures used to perform recursion? 7. What are the notations used in Evaluation of Arithmetic Expressions using prefix and postfix forms? 8. Convert the expression ((A + B) * C – (D – E) ^ (F + G)) to equivalent Prefix and Postfix notations. 9. Sorting is not possible by using which of the following methods? 10. A binary tree with 20 nodes has null branches? 21 Let us take a tree with 5 nodes (n=5) 11. What are the methods available in storing sequential files ? 12. How many different trees are possible with 10 nodes ? 1014 For example, consider a tree with 3 nodes(n=3), it will have the maximum combination of 5 different (ie, 23 - 3 = 5) trees. i ii iii iv v 13. List out few of the Application of tree data-structure? 14. List out few of the applications that make use of Multilinked Structures? 15. In tree construction which is the suitable efficient data structure? (a) Array (b) Linked list (c) Stack (d) Queue (e) none 16. What is the type of the algorithm used in solving the 8 Queens problem? 17. In an AVL tree, at what condition the balancing is to be done? 18. What is the bucket size, when the overlapping and collision occur at same time? 19. Traverse the given tree using Inorder, Preorder and Postorder traversals. 20. There are 8, 15, 13, 14 nodes were there in 4 different trees. Which of them could have formed a full binary tree? 21. In the given binary tree, using array you can store the node 4 at which location? At location 6 1 2 3 - - 4 - - 5 Root LC1 RC1 LC2 RC2 LC3 RC3 LC4 RC4 where LCn means Left Child of node n and RCn means Right Child of node n 22. Sort the given values using Quick Sort? 65 70 75 80 85 60 55 50 45 23. For the given graph, draw the DFS and BFS? BFS: A X G H P E M Y J DFS: A X H P E Y M J G 24. Classify the Hashing Functions based on the various methods by which the key value is found. 25. What are the types of Collision Resolution Techniques and the methods used in each of the type? 26. In RDBMS, what is the efficient data structure used in the internal storage representation? 27. Draw the B-tree of order 3 created by inserting the following data arriving in sequence – 92 24 6 7 11 8 22 4 5 16 19 20 78 28. Of the following tree structure, which is, efficient considering space and time complexities? (a) Incomplete Binary Tree (b) Complete Binary Tree (c) Full Binary Tree 29. What is a spanning Tree? 30. Does the minimum spanning tree of a graph give the shortest distance between any 2 specified nodes? 31. Convert the given graph with weighted edges to minimal spanning tree. 32. Which is the simplest file structure? (d) Sequential (e) Indexed (f) Random 33. Whether Linked List is linear or Non-linear data structure? 34. Draw a binary Tree for the expression : A * B - (C + D) * (P / Q) 35. For the following COBOL code, draw the Binary tree? 01 STUDENT_REC. 02 NAME. 03 FIRST_NAME PIC X(10). 03 LAST_NAME PIC X(10). 02 YEAR_OF_STUDY. 03 FIRST_SEM PIC XX. 03 SECOND_SEM PIC XX. Data Structure Questions 1. What is data structure? 2. List out the areas in which data structures are applied extensively? 3. What are the major data structures used in the following areas : RDBMS, Network data model & Hierarchical data model. 4. If you are using C language to implement the heterogeneous linked list, what pointer type will you use? 5. Minimum number of queues needed to implement the priority queue? 6. What is the data structures used to perform recursion? 7. What are the notations used in Evaluation of Arithmetic Expressions using prefix and postfix forms? 8. Convert the expression ((A + B) * C – (D – E) ^ (F + G)) to equivalent Prefix and Postfix notations. 9. Sorting is not possible by using which of the following methods? 10. A binary tree with 20 nodes has null branches? 21 Let us take a tree with 5 nodes (n=5) 11. What are the methods available in storing sequential files ? 12. How many different trees are possible with 10 nodes ? 1014 For example, consider a tree with 3 nodes(n=3), it will have the maximum combination of 5 different (ie, 23 - 3 = 5) trees. i ii iii iv v 13. List out few of the Application of tree data-structure? 14. List out few of the applications that make use of Multilinked Structures? 15. In tree construction which is the suitable efficient data structure? (a) Array (b) Linked list (c) Stack (d) Queue (e) none 16. What is the type of the algorithm used in solving the 8 Queens problem? 17. In an AVL tree, at what condition the balancing is to be done? 18. What is the bucket size, when the overlapping and collision occur at same time? 19. Traverse the given tree using Inorder, Preorder and Postorder traversals. 20. There are 8, 15, 13, 14 nodes were there in 4 different trees. Which of them could have formed a full binary tree? 21. In the given binary tree, using array you can store the node 4 at which location? At location 6 1 2 3 - - 4 - - 5 Root LC1 RC1 LC2 RC2 LC3 RC3 LC4 RC4 where LCn means Left Child of node n and RCn means Right Child of node n 22. Sort the given values using Quick Sort? 65 70 75 80 85 60 55 50 45 23. For the given graph, draw the DFS and BFS? BFS: A X G H P E M Y J DFS: A X H P E Y M J G 24. Classify the Hashing Functions based on the various methods by which the key value is found. 25. What are the types of Collision Resolution Techniques and the methods used in each of the type? 26. In RDBMS, what is the efficient data structure used in the internal storage representation? 27. Draw the B-tree of order 3 created by inserting the following data arriving in sequence – 92 24 6 7 11 8 22 4 5 16 19 20 78 28. Of the following tree structure, which is, efficient considering space and time complexities? (a) Incomplete Binary Tree (b) Complete Binary Tree (c) Full Binary Tree 29. What is a spanning Tree? 30. Does the minimum spanning tree of a graph give the shortest distance between any 2 specified nodes? 31. Convert the given graph with weighted edges to minimal spanning tree. 32. Which is the simplest file structure? (d) Sequential (e) Indexed (f) Random 33. Whether Linked List is linear or Non-linear data structure? 34. Draw a binary Tree for the expression : A * B - (C + D) * (P / Q) 35. For the following COBOL code, draw the Binary tree? 01 STUDENT_REC. 02 NAME. 03 FIRST_NAME PIC X(10). 03 LAST_NAME PIC X(10). 02 YEAR_OF_STUDY. 03 FIRST_SEM PIC XX. 03 SECOND_SEM PIC XX. Data Structure Questions 1. What is data structure? 2. List out the areas in which data structures are applied extensively? 3. What are the major data structures used in the following areas : RDBMS, Network data model & Hierarchical data model. 4. If you are using C language to implement the heterogeneous linked list, what pointer type will you use? 5. Minimum number of queues needed to implement the priority queue? 6. What is the data structures used to perform recursion? 7. What are the notations used in Evaluation of Arithmetic Expressions using prefix and postfix forms? 8. Convert the expression ((A + B) * C – (D – E) ^ (F + G)) to equivalent Prefix and Postfix notations. 9. Sorting is not possible by using which of the following methods? 10. A binary tree with 20 nodes has null branches? 21 Let us take a tree with 5 nodes (n=5) 11. What are the methods available in storing sequential files ? 12. How many different trees are possible with 10 nodes ? 1014 For example, consider a tree with 3 nodes(n=3), it will have the maximum combination of 5 different (ie, 23 - 3 = 5) trees. i ii iii iv v 13. List out few of the Application of tree data-structure? 14. List out few of the applications that make use of Multilinked Structures? 15. In tree construction which is the suitable efficient data structure? (a) Array (b) Linked list (c) Stack (d) Queue (e) none 16. What is the type of the algorithm used in solving the 8 Queens problem? 17. In an AVL tree, at what condition the balancing is to be done? 18. What is the bucket size, when the overlapping and collision occur at same time? 19. Traverse the given tree using Inorder, Preorder and Postorder traversals. 20. There are 8, 15, 13, 14 nodes were there in 4 different trees. Which of them could have formed a full binary tree? 21. In the given binary tree, using array you can store the node 4 at which location? At location 6 1 2 3 - - 4 - - 5 Root LC1 RC1 LC2 RC2 LC3 RC3 LC4 RC4 where LCn means Left Child of node n and RCn means Right Child of node n 22. Sort the given values using Quick Sort? 65 70 75 80 85 60 55 50 45 23. For the given graph, draw the DFS and BFS? BFS: A X G H P E M Y J DFS: A X H P E Y M J G 24. Classify the Hashing Functions based on the various methods by which the key value is found. 25. What are the types of Collision Resolution Techniques and the methods used in each of the type? 26. In RDBMS, what is the efficient data structure used in the internal storage representation? 27. Draw the B-tree of order 3 created by inserting the following data arriving in sequence – 92 24 6 7 11 8 22 4 5 16 19 20 78 28. Of the following tree structure, which is, efficient considering space and time complexities? (a) Incomplete Binary Tree (b) Complete Binary Tree (c) Full Binary Tree 29. What is a spanning Tree? 30. Does the minimum spanning tree of a graph give the shortest distance between any 2 specified nodes? 31. Convert the given graph with weighted edges to minimal spanning tree. 32. Which is the simplest file structure? (d) Sequential (e) Indexed (f) Random 33. Whether Linked List is linear or Non-linear data structure? 34. Draw a binary Tree for the expression : A * B - (C + D) * (P / Q) 35. For the following COBOL code, draw the Binary tree? 01 STUDENT_REC. 02 NAME. 03 FIRST_NAME PIC X(10). 03 LAST_NAME PIC X(10). 02 YEAR_OF_STUDY. 03 FIRST_SEM PIC XX. 03 SECOND_SEM PIC XX.
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