posting keys has given morthan 1 for other than gl
acconts . why they have given like that?
- 5 Answers
- 10192 Views
- Accenture, I also Faced
- E-Mail Answers
Answer Posted / uma sankar
There are two reasions are there...
1.Main ledger has only one Document Type so that it has
only two posting keys(SA=DR 40 and CR 50).But it is not
like that for Sub ledgers.Sience Sub Ledgers having
differnt Document Types.Those are like......
A/P== KA,KZ,KR,KG
A/R===DA,DZ,DR,DG..SO that these doc types having different
posting keys..
2.The Subledger accounts do not have field status group. So
they are differentiated mainly via posting keys. Therefore
they need many posting keys to identify the nature of the
trasaction. But with G/L transactions the differentiation is
mainly done through Field Status Group.therefore they need
only two posting keys, one for debit and one for credit.
Regards,
Uma sankar.
| Is This Answer Correct ? | 0 Yes | 0 No |
Post New Answer View All Answers
Hi, Give me some scenario's where we use gap and how we use gap in sap fico.
How many currencies can be configured for a company code?
what is important product casting interview questions
What do you mean by chart of accounts? What are its important elements?
what is difference between consumer based accounting and purchasing based accounting and how to assign the difference to profitability analysis.
What is operating concern in co-pa? : co-pa
Is there a prerequisite for carry-forward activity?
Where can I get the mysap business suite on linux?
What are the functionalities available in the financial statement version?
What is a posting period variant ?
Lets say for a product there exists three production versions. Explain the process how you would go about creating a mixed cost estimate?
Which of the fields you can display and log changes in fi?
What is the difference between account based profitability analysis and costing based profitability analysis?
What is a cost object? : co- general controlling
1. I want to create an installment method payment term whereby my customer pays 50% as Advance Payment & 50% Net 45 days. How to configure the 50% advance payment term in OBB8 as system does not take negative days say -1 . I have created Z100 as 50% Advance Payment & 50% Net 45 days, Z101 as 50% Adv Pyt and Z102 as 50% Net 45 days in OBB8 and then assigned the same in OBB9 to Z100, 1, 50%, Z101 and Z100, 2, 50%, Z102. But the payment terms Z101 should be having -1 days instead of 0 days. How to configure this or achieve the payment term of advance payment? 2. My purpose is that during FB70, I should get a warning message that advance payment has not yet been received for this customer having this installment payment term Z100. It should not let me post the invoice unless 50% adv pyt has been received. At present we are not using Down Payment functionality. But I assume that without the Down Payment functionality the same cannot be achieved. Please confirm this. How can I achieve the above requirements? 3.Dear Group - Our Purchasing Dept has asked me to create a new payment term with the following terms: "Payable 90% upon delivery, 60 days net, 10% upon acceptance, 60 days net". So when we receive the invoice, we get a 10% discount off the total price, due within 60 days. The balance is due 60 days after that. Any ideas on how I would configure this using transaction OBB8. IT IS VERY URGENT FOR ME KINDLY SEND ME THE ANSWER ON MY E.ID-sahu.suryakanta@hotmail.com.
