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In Rankine cycle there is a concept of Tm(mean temp of heat
addition)For calculating the efficiency of the cycle we
generally use
n=1-T2/T1
again Tm taking into consideration we get
n=1-T2/Tm
as T1>Tm so he efficiency will be different for same cycle.
Can anybody explain how is it possible?
advance appriciation for your effort
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Answer Posted / shubham
n(carnot)=1-t2/t1 which is an ideal cycle.and n(carnot)is grater than n(rankine)both being in ideal condition.so in question u have used a wrong formula for n(rankine)-1 equat.u cannot use this for rankine cycle.
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