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In Rankine cycle there is a concept of Tm(mean temp of heat
addition)For calculating the efficiency of the cycle we
generally use
n=1-T2/T1

again Tm taking into consideration we get
n=1-T2/Tm

as T1>Tm so he efficiency will be different for same cycle.


Can anybody explain how is it possible?
advance appriciation for your effort

Answer Posted / palash

thanks for the reply Balajee.Yes the efficiency will differ in he two calculations.
But my question was how can there be different efficiency for a same cycle?

Can you help?

Is This Answer Correct ?    0 Yes 0 No



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