Answer Posted / suresh murugadass

Yes. It is possible in this scenario. Here table has a
self join. Since emp_id represents both emp_id and mgr_id
this is possible a primary key to behave as foriegn key
create table emp(
emp_id int not null primarykey,
emp_name varchar2(40) not null,
mgr_id int not null foriegn key(mgr_id) references emp(emp_id)
}

Why would you call update statistics?

961

---

What is the syntax for encrypting a column in SQL Server?

1060

---

Why do we backup Active Directory ?

998

---

What are sql dirty pages?

971

---

What are the dmvs?

952

---

What is precedence constraint?

926

---

What are data files?

984

---

Does sql server 2016 have ssms?

913

---

what protocol both networks use? : Sql server database administration

932

---

Is the log file is a part of file group?

976

---

What is statement level trigger?

938

---

How does normalization work?

867

---

How to generate create function script on an existing function?

1048

---

What are the difference between data mart and data warehouse? : sql server analysis services, ssas

893

---

What is temporary table in sql server? Why we use temp table?

908

---