Answer
# 1 |
Hi guys,
I have some news for you. Brigade is recruiting candidates
with 6-12 months of experience in a chat/email based
process and I am sending you some information that will
help you clear the technical test and technical interview.
Recruitment process consists of the following:
1.Technical test (60 Multiple choice questions)
2.General English test (10 sentence corrections, a small
essay and some multiple choice questions )
3.Technical interview.
4.HR Round (Mostly salary negotiation)
5.Thats it!!!! (Time to party)
The process to which you will be recruited is a chat
process and you will need to support basic hardware issues
mostly relating to Printers. (According to my sources of
information)
I am forwarding you some information that will help you
clear 1st and 3rd rounds. Please note that no one can be
assisted with the second round. Following are some 326
questions and you can expect 60 out of them (Literally!!!
and I’m not kidding). Some questions might not make any
sense but you will need to remember them just for the heck
of passing the test. If you already have these questions,
skip them and go ahead reading rest of my mail. Don’t get
scared after going through these questions:
====================
153 QUESTIONS (First set)
====================
1 RS-232 is a standard that applies to:
*a. serial ports
2. Comm ports use: (select all that apply)
*a. 9 pin male connector
*c. 25 pin male connector
3. Before a modem transmits, it send a:
*a. RTS
4. RTS stands for:
*c. request to send
5. In modem terminology, CD stands for:
*d. carrier detect
6. UART is a type of serial chip. Its letters stand for:
*b. universal asynchronous receiver/transmitter
7. Select all true statements:
*a. com1 and com3 share the same IRQ
*d. com2 and com4 share the same IRQ
8. In modems that support more than 300 baud, baud and bps
do not mean the same thing.
*a. true
9. "bps" stands for bits per second. Baud is the number of
discrete signals per second. One discrete signal
can encode more than one bit. Hence, a 9600 bps
modem actually operates at 2400 baud. However, in
common non-techie terminology, baud and bps are
used synonymously, though that is not technically
correct. These are all true statements.
*a. true
10. ________ is the term used to refer to the process of
two modems establishing communications with each other.
*b. handshaking
11. ISDN stands for:
*b. integrated services digital network
12. Your modem does not respond when you try to dial out.
You try another modem on another computer and get
the same result. What is the most likely problem?
*d. bad phone line
13. You have a serial scanner connected to your computer
configured to use com3. It is turned on. Your modem
is using com1, and you can't dial out. What is the
most likely problem?
*c. you have a conflict with IRQ 4
14. What is the i/o address for com1?
*d. 3f8
15. What is the i/o address for com2?
*b. 2f8
16. What is the i/o address for com3?
*a. 3e8
17. What is the i/o address for com4?
*e. 2e8
18. Before sending data, a modem sends a request to send
signal, or RTS.
*a. true
19. ISDN uses _______________ technology.
*a. only digital
20. A COM port is a _______ port.
*b. serial
21. Modems use ________________ transmission.
*b. asynchronous
22. CD-Roms typically hold ______ of data.
*c. 650 meg
23. The terms "red book", "yellow book", and "orange book"
refer to:
*d. CD-Rom standards
24. CD-Roms are read by _________.
*d. laser diodes
25. Which of the following can cause CDs to be misread?
Select all that apply.
*a. smudges
*b. finger prints
*c. scratches
*d. cracks
*e. slight melting
26. CD-Rom drives typically have which of the following
interfaces? Select all that apply.
*b. parallel
*c. ide
*d. scsi
27. CD-Rom drives have which connectors? Select all that
apply.
*a. molex
*c. data cable
*d. audio cable
28. In a computer with an eide adapter, where should you
connect an ATA CD-Rom drive?
*c. on the secondary ide
29. Your IDE CD-Rom drive is attached to the primary IDE
adapter with your hard drive. How should its jumpers
be set?
*b. as a slave
30. What does MSCDEX.EXE do?
*d. It's a CD-Rom DOS driver
31. A CD-Rom drive always uses IRQ:
*e. depends on the adapter it's attached to
32. If a computer's bios allows it, you can boot from a CD-
Rom.
*a. true
33. A single speed CD-Rom drive transfers data at:
*e. 150 KBs per second
34. Your CD-Rom audio cable connects to the:
*b. sound card (or motherboard if sound is integrated with
it)
35. This statement is in autoexec.bat:
c:\dos\cdrom\mscdex /d:cdrom001 /l:e /m:10 /v
This statement is in config.sys:
device=c:\cdrom\atapicd.sys /d:cd001
Your CD-Rom drive is not working. What is wrong?
*b. the device name is not the same in both files
36. Which of the following are SCSI issues? Select all that
apply.
*a. unique id settings
*b. limited cable length
*c. parity
*d. passive termination
*e. active termination
37. On some older SCSI adapters, the boot hard drive must
be set to id#: (as a side note, some of the
older IBM SCSI PCs had to have the boot hard
drive set to id 6, but this question deals primarily
with most other PC makes and clones)
*c. 0
38. You have a PC with a SCSI adapter built into the system
board. It has only one connection (internal), which is used
for your hard drive, Í-Rom drive, and tape drive. Your boss
wants to connect a SCSI scanner to the PC, so you install a
SCSI adapter with an external connection to support the
scanner. Now you have a PC with two SCSI adapters. SCSI
adapters normally use id# 7, which the onboard adapter is
set for. The adapter you installed should: (select all that
apply)
*b. use id 7 also
*d. use a different IRQ
39. You run a super wing-ding diagnostic program on your
PC, and it reports that your hard drive, microprocessor,
ram, and video card have seen better days. To resolve this
problem you should:
*b. check to see if you have a software problem
40. Whenever you have a hardware resource conflict, it will
more likely be an IRQ conflict rather than an i/o conflict
because:
*a. there are alot more i/o addresses than IRQs.
41. SCSI adapters usually don't need drivers, just the
devices that interface with them.
*b. false
42. Most SCSI-2 devices will work fine with SCSI-1 adapters.
*a. true
43. Single-ended SCSI or "regular" SCSI has one wire for
each signal that needs to be sent along the SCSI bus.
Differential SCSI has two wires for each signal that is
sent. Differential SCSI cable lengths can be up to 25
meters. How long can single-ended SCSI cables be?
*c. up to 6 meters
44. Your PC has both internal and external SCSI devices
connected to one SCSI host adapter. Which devices should be
terminated? Select all that apply.
*a. the last internal device on the chain
*b. the last external device on the chain
45. How many devices can connect to the typical SCSI
adapter? Assume is has only one data connector.
*a. 7
46. How many devices can be used on a single SCSI bus? Keep
in mind that the SCSI host adapter counts as a device.
*b. 8
47. What is the jumper setting on a SCSI device to
configure it to use the fourth SCSI id? Remember, SCSI ids
start with zero.
*c. 011
48. Which type of interface provides for the fastest data
transfer?
*b. SCSI
49. In addition to i/o port addresses, SCSI adapters also
use a range of rom addresses for their onboard bios.
*a. true
50. SCSI-2 cables have how many pins?
*c. 50
51. IDE cables have how many pins?
*d. 40
52. You are about to install a second IDE hard drive in a
PC that has only one IDE adapter. Your first hard drive
will still be the boot drive. How should the second drive
be configured?
*c. as a slave
53. What is the maximum number of IDE drives that EIDE will
support?
*c. 4
54. You are installing an IDE hard drive that will be your
boot drive.
Which is the correct order of steps that need to be
followed?
*b. jumper properly, auto-detect(or configure manually) in
cmos, partition, high level format with /s switch
55. You are installing a SCSI hard drive that will be your
boot drive.
which is the correct order of steps that need to be
followed?
*c. set id jumpers to all zeros, partition, high level
format
56. On a flat data cable, a red or blue stripe means:
*d. pin 1
57. Which of the following would be considered an FRU?
Select all that apply.
*a. hard drive
*b. system board
*c. ram
*e. level 2 cache simm
58. Which of the following would not be considered an FRU?
*b. IRQ controller
*c. any soldered IC
59. You have a system that periodically locks up. You have
ruled out software, and now suspect that it is hardware.
What should you do first that could help you narrow it down
to the component at fault?
*d. disable the CPU cache in cmos
60. You have a PC with no video on a known good monitor.
Pick the best order you should follow in tracking down the
problem.
*b. check that PC and monitor are plugged in, check that
monitor brightness is turned up, check that PC fan is
running, remove all option cards
61. Most PCs give a single beep on bootup to indicate they
are ok hardware wise. You boot your PC and don't get a
beep. What should you check first?
*e. speaker
62. What beep codes could indicate a system board or power
supply failure? Select all that apply.
*a. steady short beep
*b. no beep
*c. one long continuous beep tone
*d. steady long beeps
63. Your PC is continuously rebooting itself. Select all of
the following that could be causing the problem.
*a. bad PC power supply
*b. faulty power at AC outlet
*c. bad system board
*d. defective adapter card
*e. corrupt operating system
64. You have an old PC that you decide to upgrade with a 1
gig IDE hard drive. You find that you can't configure cmos
to see the entire hard drive. The best you can do is 540
meg. What is the fix?
*e. use a device driver that makes the bios see the drive
as simply a block storage device, or upgrade the bios if
possible
65. A sound card typically uses which IRQ?
*b. 5
66. Your IDE hard drive is not spinning up when you turn on
the PC. What is the most likely problem.
*c. loose molex connector
67. You have a PC with no video. Which of the following is
LEAST likely to be causing the problem?
*c. crashed hard drive
68. I once had a PC with no video. I replaced the system
board, CPU, and video card, and still had no video. I then
replaced the IDE cable and fixed the problem. Am I telling
the truth?
*b. you betcha!
69. A virus can mimick just about any hardware symptoms you
can think of.
*a. true
70. A static jolt of as little of ____ volts can fry most
any PC integrated circuit.
*b. 30
71. A human cannot feel a static discharge as high as ____
volts.
*a. 200
72. ESD is ___________.
*b. electrostatic discharge
73. What's the best way to prevent damaging your PC with
static electricity?
*e. wear an ESD wrist strap
74. What is EMI? (uh, oh - here we go again)
a. electro-magnetic interference
b. electronic maintainence inquiry
c. that's it! it's answer a
75. You're on your PC at midnight and an electric storm
pops up. What's the best way to protect your PC.
*d. unplug the PC and remove phone line from the modem
76. Something as small as a ________ on a drive platter
can cause your hard drive to crash. Select all that apply.
*a. human hair
*b. dust particles
*c. finger print
*e. accumulation of smoke particles
77. When your hard drive crashes from any of the correct
selections in the question above, or from dropping it, it
is known as head-to-disk interference, or HDI.
*a. true
78. You should never put floppy drives, hard drives, or
even VCR tapes or cassette tapes on top of speakers (or
near any other source of magnetism) because of:
*b. EMI
79. Static electricity thrives is which type of environment?
*e. cold and dry
80. Which is the most difficult environmentally to dispose
of?
*d. CRTs
81. What should you use to clean the plastic cover on your
monitor or PC? Select all that apply.
*c. lint-free cloth
*e. mild soap solution
82. Dust in a computer actually increases the size of the
magnetic fields inside it. This is not good, so you must
occasionaly dust, I trust. What's the best way to do this?
*e. non-static compressed air
83. What's the best way to protect your hard drive data?
*a. regular backups
84. A CRT's grid voltage can be as high as:
*c. 15,000 volts
85. A monitor's CRT (cathode ray tube) can pack quite a
wallop of a charge even if it's been turned off for several
days or more. Before you service a monitor, you must
discharge the CRT using a tool specific for that purpose.
Before you do the discharge, what must you do first?
*b. make sure the monitor is unplugged
86. ESD is least likely to cause damage to which
components? Select all that apply.
*a. keyboard
*b. mouse
87. Which of the following are input devices only? Select
all that apply.
*b. mouse
*c. keyboard
88. Which of the following are both input/output devices?
Select all that apply.
*a. modem
*b. SCSI controller
89. |
|
___|___
____
__
.
The above symbol represents:
*c. ground
90. Which component stores an electrical charge?
*c. capacitor
91. On PC power supplies, the wire attached to pin one is
usually:
*e. white or orange
92. If the voltage on pin 1 of the power supply is not in
the range of ______ volts, the PC will not boot.
*e. 2.5 - 5
93. The output voltages of a PC power supply are in the
form of _____ current.
*b. DC
94. The output voltages from a PC power supply are:
*b. +5, +12, -5, -12
95. A spike is a sharp and sudden rise in voltage. It's
duration is usually measured in:
*b. milliseconds
96. A brownout is defined as:
*b. a slightly decreased voltage lasting from seconds to
minutes or more
97. Resistance is measured in units of:
*a. ohms
98. Current is measured in units of:
*b. amps
99. Capacitance is measured in units of:
*c. farads
100. Voltage is measured:
*a. in parallel
101. Resistance is measured:
*c. after breaking the circuit
102. Current is measured:
*b. only when you turn the device off first, then connect
your meter to the device in series, then turning it
103. AC ripple is unwanted AC current where there should
only be direct current. When AC is rectified to DC, it is
difficult, if not impossible to get rid of all the AC
voltage, though a certain amount is tolerable. You want to
measure the AC voltage in a DC circuit, so you set your
meter to measure:
*b. AC voltage
104. Anti-static plastic bags are:
*a. conductive
105. POST stands for:
*c. power on self test
106. POST is done when the PC is: (select all that apply)
*b. first turned on
*d. restarted with the reset button
107. The POST routine, which counts system board ram first,
is stored in:
*c. rom bios
108. A 1xx (x can be any digit) POST error code indicates a
problem with the:
*d. system board
109. A 2xx POST error code indicates a problem with:
*a. ram or rom
110. A 3xx POST error code indicates a problem with:
*b. keyboard
111. A 4xx, 5xx, or 24xx POST error code indicates a
problem with:
*c. video adapter
112. OK, last numeric error code check: A 17xx indicates a
problem
with:
*d. hard drive or controller
113. A 6xx indicates a problem with the:
a. floppy drive (see, I kept my word)
114. A parity error usually indicates a problem with:
*a. memory
115. How many bits in a byte?
*b. 8
116. PCMCIA stands for "personal computer memory card
international association". Just take my word for it. This
association sets forth the standards for the PC card. PC
cards are: (select all that apply)
*a. hot swappable
*c. plug and play
117. Type one PC cards:
*c. are the thinnest of the PC cards
118. To start the setup program (or cmos setup), there is
usually a key or set of keys you must press simultaneously.
Some of the ones used by various PCs are listed below.
Select all that are correct.
*a. CTRL-ALT-ENTER
*c. CTRL-ALT-S
*d. DELETE
*e. F10
119. The floppy drive uses which DMA (direct memory access)
channel?
*e. 2
120. You do a DIR on a diskette, remove it and insert
another, and get the same DIR listing from the first
diskette. This is known as a "phantom" directory, and it is
caused by: (select all that apply)
*a. line 34 on the floppy cable is bad
*d. defective floppy drive
121. The power connector on a floppy drive is called a:
*a. berg connector
122. On most floppy cables, the order for the connectors is:
*c. adapter, drive B, drive A
123. The print from a dot-matrix printer is light and
uneven. This is most likely caused by:
*b. worn ribbon
124. The print from a dot-matrix printer is sometimes
light, sometimes dark. This is most likely caused by:
*b. paper not advancing properly
125. On a dot-matrix printer, regular lube maintainence
should be followed, but this component should never be
lubed:
*c. printhead
126. When you move a mouse, the mouse pointer is positioned
via:
*e. pulses of light
127. Your laser printer is on, you hear the fan running,
but it won't print. What is the first thing you should
check?
*c. that the printer is online
128. In laser printing, there are six steps the printer
follows. What comes between the conditioning phase and the
developing phase?
*b. writing phase
129. During the laser printer's conditioning phase a
uniform charge of _______ is placed on the photosensitive
drum.
*c. -600 volts
130. In order to place this charge on the drum, the primary
corona wire must emit a charge of:
*d. -6000 volts
131. The transfer corona uses a/an ______ charge to attract
the toner to the paper.
*b. positive
132. Your laser printer gives you an error code 50. This is
usually caused by a defective:
*c. fuser assembly
133. Laser printer toner is composed primarily of: (select
all that apply)
*a. particles of plastic resin
*e. iron oxide (rust)
134. An important first step in troubleshooting which
component in a laser printer is causing a jam is to:
*a. note where in the paper path the paper stops
135. Select the best choice for cleaning laser toner from
clothing:
*d. clean cloth with cool water
136. During the fusing process, toner is:
*c. melted into the paper
137. On the PC side, the printer port is a:
*e. 25 pin female parallel connector
138. ISA is a ___ bit technology.
*a. 8/16
139. A device which supports DMA is able to i/o with memory
by and large bypassing the CPU. Bus mastering takes this a
step further by allowing a bus-master device to take charge
of the data bus and send data to other devices, including
memory, and also allows two bus master devices to talk to
each other without requiring the services of the CPU. Does
ISA support bus mastering?
*c. yes, but only one device
140. EISA and MCA devices do not have jumper settings. How
are they configured? Select all that apply.
*e. EISA configuration utility or IBM reference diskette
(MCA)
141. You can have EISA and MCA devices in the same PC.
*b. false
142. PCI devices do not have jumper settings or dip
switches. How are they configured? Select all that apply.
*a. CMOS setup
*b. an installation utility from the manufacturer
143. You can place an ISA device in an EISA slot.
*a. true
144. You can place an EISA device in an ISA slot.
*b. false
145. You can only place an MCA device in an MCA slot.
*a. true
146. Select each bus architecture that supports 32 bit data
transfers.
*b. EISA
*c. MCA
*d. PCI
147. Select each bus architecture that supports bus
mastering.
*a. EISA
*b. PCI
*d. MCA
148. A switching power supply steps down voltage by means
of:
*c. turning off and back on in rapid cycles
149. Pick the correct choice for the 8088 CPU.
*a. 16 bit word size, 8 bit data path
150. Pick the correct choice for the 80386SX CPU.
*b. 32 bit word size, 16 bit data path
151. Pick the correct choice for the 80486DX CPU.
*c. 32 bit word size, 32 bit data path
152. What is the first CPU to include an internal math
coprocessor?
*c. 486DX
153. You plug a power supply's connectors onto the system
board. You know you did it correctly because:
*b. the two sets of black wires are together in the middle
======================
101 QUESTIONS (Second set)
======================
1. Before upgrading your operating system, you should first:
*b. backup your hard drive
2. What DOS program can you run to see which serial ports
are detected?
*b. MSD
3. Where you would you load the mouse driver mouse.sys?
*a. config.sys
4. Where would you place mouse.com or mouse.bat?
*b. autoexec.bat
5. What is a TSR?
*b. terminate and stay resident program
6. Where are most TSRs loaded?
*a. autoexec.bat
7. Where is the "FILES=" statement placed?
*c. in config.sys
8. Where is the "BUFFERS=" statement placed?
*a. in config.sys
9. Smartdrv.exe can cache which of the following: (select
all that apply)
*a. hard drives
*b. cd-roms
*d. floppy drives
10. Himem.sys must be loaded before loading emm386.exe.
*a. true
11. You can run Windows 3.1 or 3.11 without loading
himem.sys.
*b. false
12. You must have himem.sys loaded before you can load DOS
high.
*a. true
13. When DOS is loaded high it is placed in the HMA (high
memory area). This is located:
*b. the first 64k above 1024k
14. To load DOS high you must place a statement in
config.sys. It is:
*c. dos=high
15. The reason you load DOS high is to:
*c. free up more conventional memory
16. The upper memory area is located:
*a. between 640k and 1024k
17. Extended memory is:
*b. anything above 1024k
18. Extended memory is managed by:
*c. himem.sys
19. Expanded memory is:
*a. paged memory
20. Expanded memory is managed by:
*b. emm386.exe
21. Conventional memory is:
*a. anything up to 640k
22. By default, DOS will load where?
*b. conventional memory
23. UMBs, or upper memory blocks are located where?
*c. between 640k and 1024k
24. What statement in config.sys will allow DOS access to
unused UMBs?
*d. DOS=UMB
25. What DOS command shows which TSRs are loaded?
*d. MEM /c
26. The DIR command shows a single directory listing. What
switch is required to show the subdirectories inside the
directory where you typed the DIR command?
*a. /s
27. You wish to see the hidden files in a directory and you
type
"DIR /A:H". Does this work?
*a. yes
28. What two DOS commands lets you know the presence of
hidden files?
*c. chkdsk and dir
29. What are the two hidden DOS system files?
*a. io.sys
*d. msdos.sys
30. Which provides the quickest data access time?
*b. ram
31. In CMOS setup, if you enable Rom Bios Shadowing, what
happens?
*e. a copy of the bios is placed in ram
32. What does XMS refer to?
*a. extended memory
33. What does EMS refer to?
*b. expanded memory
34. Virtual memory is composed of ram and:
*c. a swap file
35. Memory that is paged out to the hard drive is known as:
*b. virtual memory
36. Memory that is paged from extended memory addresses to
a 64k window in the upper memory area is known as:
*a. expanded memory
37. In order for EMM386.EXE to emulate expanded memory, you
must load what into config.sys? Select all that apply.
*a. device=emm386.exe
*c. device=emm386.exe /ram
38. In addition to managing expanded memory, emm386.exe
also manages the upper memory blocks.
*a. true
39. If you wanted to exclude the entire 64k upper memory
block of the "C" segment from being used by DOS, which
would you place in config.sys?
*a. device=emm386.exe x=C000-CFFF
40. What device driver must be loaded in config.sys to
enable power management on a laptop computer?
*b. power.exe
41. You wish to make a diskette bootable. From the "C"
prompt you type: (select all that apply)
*a. sys a:
*b. sys c: a:
42. As you soon as you see DOS starting, what key do you
press to bypass the startup files?
*b. F5
43. What are the user configurable DOS startup files?
*b. config.sys
*d. autoexec.bat
44. As soon as you see DOS starting, what key do you press
to step through the startup files?
*c. F8
45. Which statement is placed in autoexec.bat to halt its
processing until a key is pressed?
*c. pause
46. You have an older PC that may or may not require the
double buffering option in SMARTDRV.EXE. What can you type
at the DOS prompt to find out if it's needed?
*b. smartdrv
47. What is the switch to use with SMARTDRV to cause it to
disable write-behind caching on all drives?
*e. /x
48. If SMARTDRV is not loaded you may reduce the number of
allocated buffers in the "BUFFERS=" statement.
*b. false
49. What DBLSPACE switch is used to create a new compressed
drive?
*c. /create
50. In DOS 6.0, once a drive has been compressed using
DBLSPACE, it cannot be uncompressed. However, DOS 6.2 and
above allows for a compressed drive to be uncompressed.
After you determine you have enough free space to "unravel"
a compressed drive, what switch do you use with ÛLSPACE to
do this?
*b. /uncompress
51. Cross-linked files are files which erroneously claim
the same cluster. Only one file can have the cluster, which
means that fixing the problem will result in some data
loss, but recovering one file is better than losing both.
What DOS program "fixes" cross-linked files?
*b. scandisk
52. Which command makes a file read only?
*a. attrib +r "filename"
53. Which of the following file types are run simply by
typing them at the DOS prompt?
*b. exe
*c. bat
*d. com
54. Which file displays the DOS prompt?
*b. command.com
55. An external DOS command is an executable file, such as
XCOPY.EXE or ATTRIB.EXE. However, there are also internal
commands that are not files, but are rather processed by
COMMAND.COM. Which of the following are internal commands?
*a. copy
*c. dir
*e. chdir
56. You type a valid executable file that you know is on
your PC, but get the error message, "Bad command or file
name". What is wrong?
*c. the file is in a directory not specified by the path
statement
57. "Loadhigh" or "LH" is used to load TSRs into upper
memory. Where is this statement used?
*b. autoexec.bat
58. What device driver is used to create a virtual (or ram)
drive? [As a side note, in DOS 3.0 and some others,
vdisk.sys was the device driver used]
*e. ramdrive.sys
59. Which file contains the DOS kernel?
*a. io.sys
60. A cluster is the minimum file allocation unit. A
cluster is composed of:
*c. sectors
61. What command is used to partition a hard drive?
*b. fdisk
62. If you have data on a hard drive that you want to
repartition, what should you do first?
*e. backup all files
63. You must have the statement "lastdrive=x", with x
representing a drive letter,in config.sys if you have any
drive letters beyond which letter?
*e. E
64. What is the largest partition size that DOS supports?
*b. 2.1 gig
65. What command displays a disk's volume label?
*c. vol
66. What command changes or adds a volume label?
*d. label
67. You have a single hard drive that has an extended
partition containing the two logical drives "D" and "E".
You add a second hard drive. Which is correct?
*a. second drive becomes "D", logical drives become "E"
and "F"
68. What is the best way to store floppy diskettes?
*c. in their original box
69. Windows 3.1 no longer supports which mode that Windows
3.0 supported?
*a. real
70. Win.com supports a number of switches to force Windows
to start in the mode selected. You enter win.com /s at the
DOS prompt. How is Windows started?
*b. standard mode
71. The Windows file system.ini contains primarily:
*c. Windows system settings and device drivers
72. Cooperative multi-tasking means that after a certain
peiod of time, Windows takes control of the CPU from one
application to give it to the next one waiting to run.
*b. false
73. The Windows swap file can exist on a compressed volume.
*a. true
74. To change your swap file settings, which one of these
is correct?
*c. go to control panel, 386 enhanced, virtual memory
75. Windows multitasking causes several interrupt requests
to be sent to the CPU. What statement can you place in
config.sys to increase the scratch-pad memory used for
interrupt handling?
*c. stacks=9,256
76. Your PC boots fine to DOS, but when starting Windows,
your screen goes blank or is totally unreadable. You
suspect that the proper driver is not installed for your
video adapter. You decide you want Windows to startup using
a standard driver which will work with your video adapter.
What file do you edit to allow this?
*b. system.ini
77. Referring to #76, you locate the line in the proper
file, which starts with "display.drv=". Now complete the
statement to load that standard driver.
*d. vga.drv
78. Your video is not looking the way it should. You know
you have the proper video driver loaded. You double check
your config.sys file and find what missing?
*b. device=ansi.sys
79. In config.sys, which loads drivers into upper memory?
*e. devicehigh=
80. Real mode is:
*b. 8088/86 mode
81. What is a PIF?
*c. program information file
82. Which Windows file provides support for loading DOS
programs?
*e. winoldap
83. Windows uses PIFs to set the following parameters for
DOS programs: (select all that apply)
*a. start-up directory
*b. EMS memory
*c. XMS memory
*d. run in full screen or windowed
*e. exclusive
84. What does the file winoldap do?
*b. looks for the PIF for a DOS program
85. If you don't shut down Windows properly it can cause
lost clusters. How are lost clusters recovered?
*b. run scandisk
86. Is it possible to load himem.sys in config.sys with the
statement: "devicehigh=himem.sys"?
*d. you cannot load himem.sys into upper memory
87. A GPF, or General Protection Fault is usually caused
when an application tries to read or write to the memory
space belonging to another application. Because almost no
application is perfectly written, and because Windows
itself is not perfect, there will be GPFs from time to
time. However, there are things that can be done to reduce
them. Select all the following which can help to do this:
*a. use the latest versions of himem.sys and emm386.exe
*b. run the latest version of DOS
*c. add more ram
*d. make sure the FILES= statement in config.sys is set to
at least 50
*e. try a generic video or mouse driver to see if the new
driver is to blame
88. If the DOS environment size is not large enough to
handle all the DOS and Windows environment variables,
Windows can lock up or produce GPFs. What statement do you
place in config.sys to increase the DOS environment size?
*e. shell=c:\dos\command.com /e:1024 /p
[GPF tips: sometimes errant applications will add giberish
characters to win.ini and system.ini at the end of the
file. Also, sometimes it helps to upgrade the PC's bios.
Finally, you may want to defrag the hard drive(backup
everything first!), and then change your swap file from
temporary to permanent. If you are still having alot of
GPF's you may want to run Norton's extensive memory
checking utility to see if you have a bad memory chip. This
test can take hours to complete. And as always, don't
forget to check for a virus!]
89. In order for Windows to print, you must have a temp
variable set.
*a. true
90. If you want to upgrade Windows 3.1 to Windows 95, and
save all your application settings, you must:
*b. install Win95 in the same directory as Win 3.1
91. You can't print from Windows. How can you test to see
whether or not it's the printer at fault? Select all that
apply.
*a. at a DOS prompt type "dir > prn"
*b. at a DOS prompt type "type c:\autoexec.bat > lpt1:"
92. You've got a couple of megs left on your hard drive,
and now, all of a sudden, you can't print from Windows. Why?
*a. print manager needs hard drive space to spool print
jobs until they're printed
93. What is the Windows font type that consists only of
line segments, and have no filled in areas?
*b. vector
94. Which font type is infinitely rescalable?
*c. vector
95. Which type of font is characterized by poor quality,
fast, and small file size?
*a. vector
96. Which font type is composed only of dots on the screen?
*a. bitmap
97. Which file extensions indicate a bitmap type file?
Select all that apply.
*a. BMP
*b. TIF
*c. PCX
98. The image in a bitmap file is also known as a raster
image.
*a. true
99. Which font type combines the properties of both vector
and bitmap?
*a. outline
100. Truetype fonts are of which font type?
*b. outline
101. Changing the order in which you load device drivers in
config.sys can sometimes optimize memory by freeing up a
larger block of the upper memory area.
*a. true
=================
75 QUESTIONS (Third set)
=================
1. According to Microsoft, what are the minimum hardware
requirements to run Windows 95?
*c. 386dx, 4 meg ram
2. What is the lowest version of DOS that will allow
Windows 95 to be installed?
*b. 3.2
3. What are the two files that the Windows 95 Registry is
composed of?
*c. user.dat
*d. system.dat
4. What are the two Windows 95 Registry backup files?
*c. user.da0
*d. system.da0
5. What is the command file used to bring up the Registry
editor?
*e. regedit.exe
6. Select all the file systems that Windows 95 supports:
*a. vfat
*b. fat
*c. fat32
*d. cdfs
7. You upgrade from Windows 3.1 to Windows 95, and now you
can't see your program groups. Where can you find them on
the Windows 95 desktop?
*e. Start, Programs
8. Which Registry key stores all of the system settings?
*a. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
9. Before you edit the Registry, you should make a backup
copy, as any incorrect change can make your PC inoperable.
Which command should you run from the Windows directory
that will allow you to copy the Registry files?
*a. attrib -s -h -r [registry file]
10. How can you change an object's icon?
*c. right-click, properties, short-cut tab, change icon
button
11. You are having problems when Windows 95 boots. How can
you create a log file that records the events on bootup?
*c. hit F8 as soon as Windows starts, then select
bootlog.txt option
12. Windows 95 doesn't need system.ini or win.ini, but it
can still use them to support 16 bit Windows 3.x programs
that can't access the Windows 95 Registry.
*a. true
13. Can you upgrade a Windows 95 PC to Windows NT?
*b. no
14. You are installing Windows 95, and it crashes or hangs
during the hardware detection phase. What is a good way to
figure out what happened?
*c. look at detlog.txt
15. Which processor rings does Windows 95 use? Select all
that apply.
*a. 0
*d. 3
16. Which ring allows the greatest access to the CPU?
*a. 0
17. Most application run in which ring?
*d. 3
18. Most device drivers run in which ring?
*a. 0
19. You have several application running, and the one you
are currently working on freezes up. What do you do?
*c. CTRL-ALT-DELETE once, select the offending program,
click "End Task"
20. What is the maximum number of characters that a file
name can have, including its path?
*e. 260
21. You are having problems with your PC, and you want to
start it in "Safe Mode", so that just the minimum
configuration needed to run Windows 95 loads. How do you do
this? Select all that apply.
*a. F8, select "Safe Mode"
*b. F5
22. Windows 95 gives you the opportunity to create a
startup disk when you install it. However, if you skip it
during installation, how can you create one later?
*c. go to control panel, add/remove programs, startup disk
tab, create
23. You install a super-wing-ding video card and driver,
but your display hasn't changed. How is the display
changed? Select all that apply.
*a. right-click desktop, properties, settings
*e. left-click start, settings, control panel, display
24. From what part of Windows 95 can you view device
properties or remove them completely?
*b. device manager
25. The Windows 3.1 File Manager has been replaced by what
in Windows •?
*d. Explorer
26. If you delete a file from a windows on the Windows 95
desktop, how can you get it back?
*c. look in the Recycle Bin
27. To install Windows 95 over a network, what is the best
way to do this?
*c. netsetup
28. Without the Plus pack, how large can you create a
compressed drive using Windows 95 drvspace?
*a. 512 meg
29. To install Windows 95 from DOS, what is the minimum
amount of conventional memory required?
*b. 470k
30. Bus emumerators build the hardware tree on bootup.
Which two bus enumerators are not included with Windows 95?
*c. VLB
*d. MCA
31. "Hot Docking" means that:
*b. power can be on to remove\install a device
32. How are IRQ, DMA, and I\O port information displayed?
Select all that apply.
*a. start, settings, control panel, system, device manager,
double-click computer
*b. right-click "My Computer", properties, device manager,
double-click "My Computer"
33. You have trouble printing from Windows 95. What is one
of the first things you should do?
*c. disable EMF spooling
34. How do you create a shortcut? Select all that apply.
*a. from Explorer, right-click a run file and drag it to
the desktop, then select "create shortcut".
*b. right-click desktop, select new, select shortcut
35. You name a file "This is my file". How is the file name
displayed from the DOS prompt?
*d. thisis~1
36. Can Windows 95 dual boot with NT?
*a. yes, but only if Windows 95 is installed first
37. You want Windows 95 to go straight to a DOS prompt as
soon as it boots. Which file must you modify to accomplish
this?
*d. msdos.sys
38. Referring to question 37, which statement must you
place in the file?
*c. bootgui=0
39. When you start Windows 95 in MSDOS mode, what happens
to Windows?
*d. it is unloaded from memory
40. You usually run Windows 95 on your computer, but one
day you left a bootable DOS 6.22 diskette in the floppy
drive. You let it bootup DOS, and decide to defrag your
hard drive using DOS 6.22. What happens to your Windows 95
long file names?
*b. they are gone
41. In Windows 95, where do you disable write-behind
caching?
*a. system properties, performance, file system,
troubleshooting
42. How do you map a drive letter to a network share?
Select all that apply.
*a. double-click the Network Neighborhood icon, highlight
an object in its dialogue box, select the file option,
click "Map Network Drive"
*c. right-click the Network Neighborhood icon, click "Map
Network Drive"
43. You have a network card with only one connector, which
looks like a place to plug an oversized phone cord. What
type of card is it?
*d. ethernet
44. You have a network card with the connector in question
43, and it also has a 15 pin female connector, the pins
being in two rows. What type of card is it?
*a. ethernet
45. You have a network card with the connector in question
43, and it also has a 9 pin female connector. What type of
card is it?
*b. token ring
46. Twisted-pair cable uses what type of connector?
*c. RJ-45
47. Thinnet coaxial cable uses what type of connector?
*e. BNC
48. Thick Ethernet cable uses what type of connector?
Select all that apply.
*b. AUI
49. What is attenuation?
*c. loss of signal strength
50. What is used to boost a digital signal?
*d. booster
51. What is used to boost an analog signal?
*a. amplifier
52. What is the maximum length of twisted-pair cable before
a signal booster is needed? Select all that apply.
*b. 100 meters
*c. 328 feet
53. What is 10baseT?
*a. specification for twisted-pair cable
54. What is the maximum length of thinnet cable before a
signal booster is needed?
*a. 185 meters
55. 10base2 is specification for Ethernet thinnet coaxial
cable. What is the specification for thick Ethernet?
*b. 10base5
56. What is the maximum length of thick Ethernet cable
before a signal booster is needed?
*b. 500 meters
57. What is the IEEE specification for Ethernet?
*c. 802.3
58. What is the IEEE specification for Token Ring?
*e. 802.5
59. What are the characteristics of FDDI? Select all that
apply.
*a. dual ring
*b. token passing
*c. beaconing
*d. 100 megabits per second data transfer
*e. uses fiber-optic cable
60. You wish to join a Token Ring segment with an Ethernet
segment. What can you use to do this? Select all that apply.
*c. router
*d. gateway
61. You wish to connect your NT based LAN to an AS400
machine(main frame). What can you use to do this? Select
all that apply.
*d. gateway
62. A LAN is a local area network. A WAN is a wide area
network. Which of the following qualifies as a LAN? Select
all that apply.
*c. two computers on different floors in a building linked
with an Ethernet connection
*d. One computer and two HP JetAdmin printers connected by
an active hub using the DLC protocol
*e. One NT server and one Windows 95 client connected by a
direct cable connection
63. OSI stands for open systems interconnect. These are the
layers in this network model:
7. application
6. presentation
5. session
4. transport
3. network
2. data link
1. physical
64. At which OSI layer do repeaters operate?
*b. physical
65. At which OSI layer do bridges operate?
*c. data link
66. At which OSI layer do routers operate?
*a. network
67. At which OSI layer do gateways operate?
*e. application
68. Which of the following protocols are routable? Select
all that apply.
*b. DLC
*c. Decnet
*d. IPX/SPX
*e. TCPIP
69. Network protocols are installed much the same way
device drivers are in Windows 95. When a protocol is
installed, it is bound to the network card's driver. This
process is called "binding". The binding order can affect a
network's efficiency. Your most used protocol on a network
should be installed:
*b. first
70. DHCP stands for dynamic host configuration protocol. If
you have a DHCP server, this means that configuring client
IP addresses:
*b. is automatically done by the DHCP server
71. You are using the IPX/SPX protocol on your network, and
your newly installed Windows 95 PC won't connect to any of
the servers. All the hardware checks out fine, and all the
drivers are properly loaded. All the cable connections
check out fine. What is probably the problem?
*c. check the frame type on the Windows 95 PC
72. Most network problems occur at which OSI layer?
*e. physical
73. Which network troubleshooting tool tests cables for
breaks, crimps, or shorts?
*a. TDR
74. What is the smallest unit of data transfer over a
network?
*c. packet
75. The internet uses which network protocol?
*e. TCPIP
------------------------------------------------------------
-----------
These are some questions that you will face in technical
interview:
1.Tell me about system restore OR what does system restore
do?
2.What things do you see on a basic mother board? (Things
like RAM slots, PCI Slots, AGP slot, IDE Ports, Processor
slot, a cooling fan etc.)
3.How many IDE devices can you connect? (Its 4)
4.What’s the maximum data transfer speed from a USB port?
(12 Mb per second for USB and 480 Mb per second with USB
2.0)
5.How will you know that there is a problem with a
particular device from Device Manager window? (You will see
a small yellow circle with an exclamation mark ‘!’ beside
the device name )
6.What are the new features in a V.92 modem? (Search
for “V.92” in Knowledge center and you will get required
information)
7.How do you resolve IRQ conflicts? (Say “I don’t know” and
even then you will get selected)
8.What is the reason for leaving Webhelp? ;-)
9.Tell me about “Switch user” in windows xp? (Click Start -
> Log off -> now you can see “Switch user”. Do some
research to know about it)
10.Difference between SD RAM and DD RAM?
11.Types of RAM?
12.Etc, etc. (You can expect some other such silly
questions. If you don’t know the answers, be bold and
say “I DON’T KNOW”. Still you will get selected if you are
from Webhelp).
That’s it guys. If you need any other information, don’t
hesitate to mail me( Whether you know me or not). One can
negotiate a 10, 000+ salary by showing one year
experience. According to sources you will have two six day
working weeks and two five day working weeks in a month.
Thanks to all Webhelp employees who got into Brigade
successfully and shared this information with me. Special
thanks to an ex-webhelp employee from E-mail process who
sent me these 326 questions.
Hope to see you all in Brigade soon. Don’t be selfish and
forward this mail to everyone in Webhelp.
ALL HAIL WEBHELP.
With best wishes...
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