Of the 45 students that Jason surveyed, 36 of them like
chocolate. if jason were to survey 100 students, how many
of them could he expect to like chocolate?
If one always ought to act so as to produce the best
possible circumstances, then morality is extremely
demanding. No one could plausibly claim to have met the
requirements of this "simple principle." . . . It would
seem strange to punish those intending to do good by
sentencing them to an impossible task. Also, if the
standards of right conduct are as extreme as they seem,
then they will preclude the personal projects that humans
find most fulfilling.
From an analytic perspective, the potential extreme demands
of morality are not a "problem." A theory of morality is no
less valid simply because it asks great sacrifices. In
fact, it is difficult to imagine what kind of constraints
could be put on our ethical projects. Shouldn't we reflect
on our base prejudices, and not allow them to provide
boundaries for our moral reasoning? Thus, it is tempting to
simply dismiss the objections to the simple principle.
However, in Demands of Morality, Liam Murphy takes these
objections seriously for at least two distinct reasons.
First, discussion of the simple principle provides an
excellent vehicle for a discussion of morality in general.
Perhaps, in a way, this is Murphy's attempt at doing
philosophy "from the inside out.". . . Second, Murphy's
starting point tells us about the nature of his project.
Murphy must take seriously the collisions between moral
philosophy and our intuitive sense of right and wrong. He
[must do so] because his work is best interpreted as
intended to forge moral principles from our firm beliefs,
and not to proscribe beliefs given a set of moral
principles.
[Murphy] argues from our considered judgments rather than
to them. . . For example, Murphy cites our "simple but
firmly held" beliefs as supporting the potency of the over-
demandingness objection, and nowhere in the work can one
find a source of moral values divorced from human
preferences.
Murphy does not tell us what set of "firm beliefs" we ought
to have. Rather, he speaks to an audience of well-
intentioned but unorganized moral realists, and tries to
give them principles that represent their considered moral
judgments. Murphy starts with this base sense of right and
wrong, but recognizes that it needs to be supplemented by
reason where our intuitions are confused or conflicting.
Perhaps Murphy is looking for the best interpretation of
our convictions, the same way certain legal scholars try to
find the best interpretation of our Constitution.
This approach has disadvantages. Primarily, Murphy's
arguments, even if successful, do not provide the kind of
motivating force for which moral philosophy has
traditionally searched. His work assumes and argues in
terms of an inner sense of morality, and his project seeks
to deepen that sense. Of course, it is quite possible that
the moral viewpoints of humans will not converge, and some
humans have no moral sense at all. Thus, it is very easy
for the moral skeptic to point out a lack of justification
and ignore the entire work.
On the other hand, Murphy's choice of a starting point
avoids many of the problems of moral philosophy. Justifying
the content of moral principles and granting a motivating
force to those principles is an extraordinary task. It
would be unrealistic to expect all discussions of moral
philosophy to derive such justifications. Projects that
attempt such a derivation have value, but they are hard
pressed to produce logical consequences for everyday life.
In the end, Murphy's strategy may have more practical
effect than its first-principle counterparts, which do not
seem any more likely to convince those that would reject
Murphy's premises.
1) The author suggests that the application of
Murphy's philosophy to the situations of two different
groups:
a) would help to solve the problems of one group but
not of the other.
b) could result in the derivation of two radically
different moral principles.
c) would be contingent on the two groups sharing the
same fundamental beliefs.
d) could reconcile any differences between the two
groups.
2) Suppose an individual who firmly believes in
keeping promises has promised to return a weapon to a
person she knows to be extremely dangerous. According to
Murphy, which of the following, if true, would WEAKEN the
notion that she should return the weapon?
a) She also firmly believes that it is morally wrong
to assist in any way in a potentially violent act.
b) She believes herself to be well-intentioned in
matters of right and wrong.
c) The belief that one should keep promises is shared
by most members of her community.
d) She derived her moral beliefs from first-principle
ethical philosophy.
3) The passage implies that a moral principle derived
from applying Murphy's philosophy to a particular group
would be applicable to another group if:
a) the first group recommended the principle to the
second group.
b) the moral viewpoints of the two groups do not
converge.
c) the members of the second group have no firmly held
beliefs.
d) the second group shares the same fundamental
beliefs as the first group.
4) According to the passage, the existence of
individuals who entirely lack a moral sense:
a) confirms the notion that moral principles should be
derived from the considered judgments of individuals.
b) suggests a potential disadvantage of Murphy's
philosophical approach.
c) supports Murphy's belief that reason is necessary
in cases in which intuitions are conflicting or confused.
d) proves that first-principle strategies of ethical
theorizing will have no more influence over the behavior of
individuals than will Murphy's philosophical approach.
5) Which of the following can be inferred about "doing
philosophy from the inside out?"
a) Murphy was the first philosopher to employ such an
approach.
b) It allows no place for rational argument in the
formation of ethical principles.
c) It is fundamentally different from the practice of
first-principle philosophy.
d) It is designed to dismiss objections to the "simple
principle."
6) A school board is debating whether or not to
institute a dress code for the school's students. According
to Murphy, the best way to come to an ethical decision
would be to:
a) consult the fundamental beliefs of the board
members.
b) analyze the results of dress codes instituted at
other schools.
c) survey the students as to whether or not they would
prefer a dress code.
d) determine whether or note a dress code has ever
been instituted in the school's history.
A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all
day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has
hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z),
and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly
eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired.
Each employee works a complete day when working.
A manager must be on duty each day.
The managers cannot work on the same day.
At least two tellers must be working on the same day.
W and X will not work on the same day.
S and Z will only work on Saturday.
No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee
must work on Saturday or Sunday.
Which of the following could be false?
a) If U works on Saturday, then V works on Sunday.
b) If X works on Saturday, then W works on Sunday.
c) T can work either day.
d) If W works on Saturday and Y works on Sunday, then X
works on Sunday.
e) If U works on Sunday, then X works on Saturday.
15) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends -
all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank
has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and
Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of
exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees
are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working.
A manager must be on duty each day.
The managers cannot work on the same day.
At least two tellers must be working on the same day.
W and X will not work on the same day.
S and Z will only work on Saturday.
No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee
must work on Saturday or Sunday.
Which one of the following is an acceptable group of
employees that could work on Saturday?
a) ZWYST
b) UVWYZS
c) VWXST
d) UZST
e) VWZS
16) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends -
all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank
has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and
Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of
exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees
are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working.
A manager must be on duty each day.
The managers cannot work on the same day.
At least two tellers must be working on the same day.
W and X will not work on the same day.
S and Z will only work on Saturday.
No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee
must work on Saturday or Sunday.
What is the greatest number of employees that can work on
Saturday?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
17) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends -
all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank
has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and
Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of
exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees
are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working.
A manager must be on duty each day.
The managers cannot work on the same day.
At least two tellers must be working on the same day.
W and X will not work on the same day.
S and Z will only work on Saturday.
No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee
must work on Saturday or Sunday.
If W works on Sunday, then which one of the following must
be true?
a) X works on Saturday
b) Y works on Saturday
c) T works on Saturday
d) Z works on Saturday
e) U works on Saturday
18) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends -
all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank
has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and
Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of
exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees
are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working.
A manager must be on duty each day.
The managers cannot work on the same day.
At least two tellers must be working on the same day.
W and X will not work on the same day.
S and Z will only work on Saturday.
No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee
must work on Saturday or Sunday.
Which one of the following must be true?
a) T always works on the same day as Y.
b) S never works on the same day as U.
c) Z never works on the same day as X.
d) If W works on Sunday, then Y always works on Saturday.
e) Only two tellers work on Saturday.
19) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends -
all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank
has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and
Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of
exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees
are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working.
A manager must be on duty each day.
The managers cannot work on the same day.
At least two tellers must be working on the same day.
W and X will not work on the same day.
S and Z will only work on Saturday.
No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee
must work on Saturday or Sunday.
Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list
of the employees who have the possibility of working on Sunday?
a) UWYZ
b) UWYS
c) UVWXT
d) UVWXYT
e) UVWXYTS
20) In the earliest stages of common law, a party could have
their case heard by a judge only upon the payment of a fee
to the court, and then only if the case fit into one of the
forms for which there existed a writ. At first the number of
such formalized cases of action was very small, but judges
invented new forms which brought more cases and greater
revenues.
Which of the following conclusions is most strongly
suggested by the paragraph above?
a) In most early cases, the plaintiff rather than the
defendant prevailed.
b) One of the motivating forces for the early expansion in
judicial power was economic considerations.
c) The first common law decisions were inconsistent with one
another and did not form a coherent body of law.
d) Early judges often decided cases in an arbitrary and
haphazard manner.
e) The judiciary at first had greater power than either the
legislature or the executive.
Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are
doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an
optometrist, and one is a general practitioner. They are
seated around a square table, with one person on each side.
1) Barry is across from the dentist.
2) David is not across from the surgeon.
3) The optometrist is on Ann's immediate left.
4) Cathy is the general practitioner.
5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each
other.
6) The general practitioner is not on Cathy's immediate left.
7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist.
Which of the following must be true?
a) Barry is the dentist.
b) The surgeon and general practitioner are women.
c) The dentist is across from the surgeon.
d) David is the surgeon.
e) Cathy is across from Ann.
13) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy
are doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an
optometrist, and one is a general practitioner. They are
seated around a square table, with one person on each side.
1) Barry is across from the dentist.
2) David is not across from the surgeon.
3) The optometrist is on Ann's immediate left.
4) Cathy is the general practitioner.
5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each
other.
6) The general practitioner is not on Cathy's immediate left.
7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist.
If both women leave the table, the
a) optometrist and dentist remain.
b) surgeon and optometrist remain.
c) surgeon and general practitioner remain.
d) general practitioner and dentist remain.
e) general practitioner and optometrist remain.
Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having
problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any
color combination that does not go well together as many of
her clients may look down upon this.
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses,
white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red,
black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown.
The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings.
Gray does not go well with brown.
Black does not go well with brown.
If Jane wears black shoes she will not wear:
a) red stockings.
b) a blue skirt.
c) a white blouse.
d) blue stockings.
e) a sky blue blouse.
8) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having
problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any
color combination that does not go well together as many of
her clients may look down upon this.
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses,
white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red,
black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown.
The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings.
Gray does not go well with brown.
Black does not go well with brown.
If Jane is color blind and is unable to determine what
outfits went well together, how many possible clothing
combinations could she have?
a) 24
b) 32
c) 36
d) 44
e) 48
9) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having
problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any
color combination that does not go well together as many of
her clients may look down upon this.
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses,
white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red,
black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown.
The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings.
Gray does not go well with brown.
Black does not go well with brown.
If Jane wears a brown skirt and a white blouse, she could:
a) not wear blue stockings.
b) not wear brown shoes.
c) not wear black shoes.
d) wear blue stockings.
e) wear red stockings.
10) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having
problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any
color combination that does not go well together as many of
her clients may look down upon this.
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses,
white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red,
black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown.
The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings.
Gray does not go well with brown.
Black does not go well with brown.
Jane buys a gray scarf. If she wears the new scarf, then she
could:
a) not wear blue stockings.
b) not wear brown stockings.
c) not wear black shoes.
d) wear a white blouse.
e) wear black stockings.
11) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having
problems getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any
color combination that does not go well together as many of
her clients may look down upon this.
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses,
white, sky blue, and gray; four pairs of stockings, red,
black, brown, and blue; and two pairs of shoes, black and brown.
The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings.
Gray does not go well with brown.
Black does not go well with brown.
Jane will never wear:
a) blue and red together.
b) white and red together.
c) gray and blue together.
d) white and black together.
e) white and red together.
1) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene,
enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results
of all six races are listed below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris.
Alan finishes either first or last.
Eugene finishes either first or last.
There are no ties in any race.
Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place
finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight
points for second, and ten points for first.
If Eugene finishes two places ahead of Chris in the first
race, all of the following will be true EXCEPT:
a) Bob finishes ahead of Don.
b) Chris finishes two places ahead of Alan.
c) Don finishes fourth.
d) Bob finishes immediately behind Eugene.
e) Chris finishes ahead of Bob.
2) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene,
enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results
of all six races are listed below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris.
Alan finishes either first or last.
Eugene finishes either first or last.
There are no ties in any race.
Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place
finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight
points for second, and ten points for first.
If Don finishes third in the third race, which of the
following must be true of that race?
a) Alan finishes first.
b) Eugene finishes first.
c) Bob finishes second.
d) Chris finishes second.
e) Alan finishes fifth.
3) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene,
enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results
of all six races are listed below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris.
Alan finishes either first or last.
Eugene finishes either first or last.
There are no ties in any race.
Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place
finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight
points for second, and ten points for first.
If Eugene's total for the six races is 36 points, which of
the following must be true?
a) Bob's total is more than 36 points.
b) Chris's total is more than 36 points.
c) Alan's total is 36 points.
d) Don's total is less than 36 points.
e) Don's total is 36 points.
4) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene,
enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results
of all six races are listed below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris.
Alan finishes either first or last.
Eugene finishes either first or last.
There are no ties in any race.
Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place
finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight
points for second, and ten points for first.
If Alan finishes first only once, and Don finishes second
exactly twice, the lowest total number of points that Bob
can earn in the race is:
a) 32 points.
b) 38 points.
c) 40 points.
d) 44 points.
e) 48 points.
5) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene,
enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results
of all six races are listed below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris.
Alan finishes either first or last.
Eugene finishes either first or last.
There are no ties in any race.
Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place
finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight
points for second, and ten points for first.
If Alan finishes first in four races, which of the following
could earn a total of fewer than 26 points in the six races?
a) Bob only.
b) Chris only.
c) Don only.
d) Eugene of Chris.
e) Don or Chris.
6) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene,
enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results
of all six races are listed below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris.
Alan finishes either first or last.
Eugene finishes either first or last.
There are no ties in any race.
Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place
finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight
points for second, and ten points for first.
If Frank enters the third race and finishes behind Chris and
Don, which of the following must be true of that race?
a) Eugene finishes first.
b) Alan finishes sixth.
c) Don finishes second.
d) Frank finishes fifth.
e) Chris finishes third.
Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene,
enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results
of all six races are listed below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris.
Alan finishes either first or last.
Eugene finishes either first or last.
There are no ties in any race.
Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place
finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight
points for second, and ten points for first.
1)If Eugene finishes two places ahead of Chris in the first
race, all of the following will be true EXCEPT:
2)If Don finishes third in the third race, which of the
following must be true of that race?
3)In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place
finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight
points for second, and ten points for first.
If Eugene's total for the six races is 36 points, which of
the following must be true?
4)In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place
finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight
points for second, and ten points for first.
If Alan finishes first only once, and Don finishes second
exactly twice, the lowest total number of points that Bob
can earn in the race is:
5)In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place
finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight
points for second, and ten points for first.
If Alan finishes first in four races, which of the following
could earn a total of fewer than 26 points in the six races?
6)In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place
finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight
points for second, and ten points for first.
If Frank enters the third race and finishes behind Chris and
Don, which of the following must be true of that race?
Sir,plz tell me what topics to prepare for the mangerial
aptitude for office under trianee general exam.sir,plz send
me as soon as possible 2 my mail-id.My id
z:rayudu.lph@gmail.com
write code for calculating Standard Deviation in c sharp
215
vertical measure
83
Agonistic behavior, or aggression, is exhibited by most of
the more than three million species of animals on this
planet. Animal behaviorists still disagree on a
comprehensive definition of the term, hut aggressive
behavior can be loosely described as any action that harms
an adversary or compels it to retreat. Aggression may serve
many purposes, such as Food gathering, establishing
territory, and enforcing social hierarchy. In a general
Darwinian sense, however, the purpose of aggressive behavior
is to increase the individual animal’s—and thus, the
species’—chance of survival.
Aggressive behavior may he directed at animals of other
species, or it may be conspecific—that is, directed at
members of an animal’s own species. One of the most common
examples of conspecific aggression occurs in the
establishment and maintenance of social hierarchies. In a
hierarchy, social dominance is usually established according
to physical superiority; the classic example is that of a
pecking order among domestic fowl. The dominance hierarchy
may be viewed as a means of social control that reduces the
incidence of attack within a group. Once established, the
hierarchy is rarely threatened by disputes because the
inferior animal immediately submits when confronted by a
superior.
Two basic types of aggressive behavior are common to most
species: attack and defensive threat. Each type involves a
particular pattern of physiological and behavioral
responses, which tends not to vary regardless of the
stimulus that provokes it. For example, the pattern of
attack behavior in cats involves a series of movements, such
as stalking, biting, seizing with the forepaws and
scratching with tile hind legs, that changes very little
regardless of the stimulus—that is, regardless of who or
what the cat is attacking.
The cat’s defensive threat response offers another set of
closely linked physiological and behavioral patterns. The
cardiovascular system begins to pump blood at a faster rate,
in preparation for sudden physical activity. The eves narrow
and the ears flatten against the side of the cat’s head for
protection, and other vulnerable areas of the body such as
the stomach and throat are similarly contracted. Growling or
hissing noises and erect fur also signal defensive threat.
As with the attack response, this pattern of responses is
generated with little variation regardless of the nature of
the stimulus.
Are these aggressive patterns of attack and defensive threat
innate, genetically programmed, or are they learned? The
answer seems to be a combination of both. A mouse is
helpless at birth, but by its l2th day of life can assume a
defensive threat position by backing up on its hind legs. By
the time it is one month old, the mouse begins to exhibit
the attack response. Nonetheless, copious evidence suggests
that animals learn and practice aggressive behavior; one
need look no further than the sight of a kitten playing with
a ball of string. All the elements of attack—stalking,
pouncing, biting, and shaking—are part of the game that
prepares the kitten for more serious situations later in life.
7) The passage asserts that animal social hierarchies are
generally stable because:
a) the behavior responses of the group are known by all its
members.
b) the defensive threat posture quickly stops most conflicts.
c) inferior animals usually defer to their physical superior.
d) the need for mutual protection from other species
inhibits conspecific aggression.
8) According to the author, what is the most significant
physiological change undergone by a cat assuming the
defensive threat position?
a) An increase in cardiovascular activity
b) A sudden narrowing of the eyes
c) A contraction of the abdominal muscles
d) The author does not say which change is most significant
9) Based on the information in the passage about agonistic
behavior, it is reasonable to conclude that:
I. the purpose of agonistic behavior is to help ensure the
survival of the species.
II. agonistic behavior is both innate and learned.
III. conspecific aggression is more frequent than i aggression.
a) I only
b) II only
c) I and II only
d) I,II and III only
10) Which of the following would be most in accord with the
information presented in the passage?
a) The aggressive behavior of sharks is closely inked to
their need to remain in constant motion.
b) fine inability of newborn mice to exhibit the attack
response proves that aggressive behavior must be learned.
c) Most animal species that do riot exhibit aggressive
behavior are prevented from doing so by environmental factors.
d) Members of a certain species of hawk use the same method
to prey on both squirrels and gophers.
11) The author suggests that the question of whether
agonistic behavior is genetically programmed or learned:
a) still generates considerable controversy among animal
behaviorists.
b) was first investigated through experiments on mice.
c) is outdated since most scientists now believe the genetic
element to be most important.
d) has been the subject of extensive clinical study.
12) Which of the following topics related to agonistic
behavior is NOT explicitly addressed in the passage?
a) The physiological changes that accompany attack behavior
in cats
b) The evolutionary purpose of aggression
c) Conspecific aggression that occurs in dominance hierarchies
d) The relationship between play and aggression
13) The author of this passage is primarily concerned with:
a) analyzing the differences between attack behavior and
defensive threat behavior.
b) introducing a subject currently debated among animal
behaviorists.
c) providing a general overview of aggressive behavior in
animals.
d) illustrating various manifestations of agonistic behavior
among mammals.
223
Which of the following OSPF commands, when used together,
will put the network 192.168.10.0/24 into OSPF area 0?
when u loved someone and he/she is trying to throw a grenade
in crowed place. wht u will do? do u kill him/her or not.
THe answer shold be writeen altest one page. Please help me
in this by posting the answer to sruthi_53@yahoo.co.in
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